Nursing Elites

1. A nurse prepares to care for a 4-year-old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma. The nurse should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function of which area of the body?

• A. All striated muscles
• B. The cerebellum
• C. The kidneys
• D. The leg bones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children, originating in striated (skeletal) muscles and potentially affecting any part of the body. Symptoms vary based on the location of the tumor. In the head or neck area, symptoms may include sudden bulging or swelling of the eyes, conjunctival chemosis, and headache. Rhabdomyosarcoma can also impact organs like the urinary or reproductive system. Common metastatic sites include the lungs. Therefore, the nurse should pay attention to the function of all striated muscles in the child to monitor for any signs or symptoms related to the disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as rhabdomyosarcoma primarily involves striated muscles and does not specifically target the cerebellum, kidneys, or leg bones.

2. A client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The nurse knows that a PTCA is:

• A. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery
• B. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator
• C. Procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow
• D. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is a procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow. It is performed during a cardiac catheterization to improve coronary artery blood flow in a diseased artery. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery is typically done through procedures like aorto-coronary bypass graft (ACBG) rather than PTCA. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator (AICD) is a different procedure used for managing cardiac arrhythmias. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart refers to procedures like echocardiography or cardiac MRI, not PTCA.

3. Based on Mr. C's assessment, which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate?

• A. Elevate the lower extremities to 45 degrees to promote venous return
• B. Place Mr. C in the Trendelenburg position
• C. Administer total parenteral nutrition
• D. Monitor urine output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the context of Mr. C's assessment, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to monitor urine output. A client in hypovolemic shock may experience decreased urine output due to poor kidney perfusion. By monitoring urine output, the nurse can assess renal function and fluid status. Administering total parenteral nutrition (Choice C) is not indicated based on the information provided, as the priority is to stabilize the client's condition. Elevating the lower extremities (Choice A) may be helpful in some cases but is not the priority in this situation. Placing Mr. C in the Trendelenburg position (Choice B) is contraindicated in hypovolemic shock as it can worsen venous return and compromise cardiac output.

4. A 45-year-old woman is prescribed ropinirole (Requip) for Parkinson's Disease. The patient is living at home with her daughter. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of ropinirole?

• A. Slurred speech
• B. Sudden dizziness
• C. Mask-like facial expression
• D. Stooped posture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Sudden dizziness.' Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension are serious adverse effects of ropinirole that can lead to an increased risk of falls. Ropinirole belongs to the drug class of dopamine agonists, which mimic dopamine in the brain (Parkinson's Disease is characterized by a lack of dopamine). 'Slurred speech' is not a common side effect of ropinirole. 'Mask-like facial expression' and 'Stooped posture' are more associated with the progression of Parkinson's Disease itself rather than a side effect of ropinirole.

5. A mother brings her 5-week-old infant to the health care clinic and tells the nurse that the child has been vomiting after meals. The mother reports that the vomiting is becoming more frequent and forceful. The nurse suspects pyloric stenosis and asks the mother which assessment question to elicit data specific to this condition?

• A. Are the stools ribbon-like, and is the infant eating poorly?
• B. Does the infant suddenly become pale, begin to cry, and draw the legs up to the chest?
• C. Does the vomit contain sour, undigested food without bile, and is the infant constipated?
• D. Does the infant cry loudly and continuously during the evening hours but nurses or takes formula well?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vomiting undigested food that is not bile stained and constipation are classic symptoms of pyloric stenosis. Stools that are ribbon-like and a child who is eating poorly are signs of congenital megacolon (Hirschsprung's disease). An infant who suddenly becomes pale, cries out, and draws the legs up to the chest is demonstrating physical signs of intussusception. Crying during the evening hours, appearing to be in pain, eating well, and gaining weight are clinical manifestations of colic.

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