NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse prepares to care for a 4-year-old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma. The nurse should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function of which area of the body?
- A. All striated muscles
- B. The cerebellum
- C. The kidneys
- D. The leg bones
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children, originating in striated (skeletal) muscles and potentially affecting any part of the body. Symptoms vary based on the location of the tumor. In the head or neck area, symptoms may include sudden bulging or swelling of the eyes, conjunctival chemosis, and headache. Rhabdomyosarcoma can also impact organs like the urinary or reproductive system. Common metastatic sites include the lungs. Therefore, the nurse should pay attention to the function of all striated muscles in the child to monitor for any signs or symptoms related to the disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as rhabdomyosarcoma primarily involves striated muscles and does not specifically target the cerebellum, kidneys, or leg bones.
2. You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit's refrigerator. Which of the following drugs, if found inside the fridge, should be removed?
- A. Nadolol (Corgard)
- B. Opened (in-use) Humulin N injection
- C. Urokinase (Kinlytic)
- D. Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Nadolol (Corgard) should be removed if found inside the fridge because it is supposed to be stored at room temperature between 59 to 86 ºF (15 and 30 ºC) away from heat, moisture, and light. Storing it in the refrigerator can alter its effectiveness and stability. Option B, the opened Humulin N injection, should not be stored in the refrigerator as it is an in-use product and can remain at room temperature for a certain period as per manufacturer guidelines. Option C, Urokinase (Kinlytic), and Option D, Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen), do not require refrigeration and can be stored at room temperature. Therefore, Nadolol (Corgard) is the drug that should be removed from the fridge.
3. The nurse is teaching parents about the treatment plan for a 2-week-old infant with Tetralogy of Fallot. While awaiting future surgery, the nurse instructs the parents to immediately report
- A. Loss of consciousness
- B. Feeding problems
- C. Poor weight gain
- D. Fatigue with crying
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Loss of consciousness.' While parents should report any concerning observations, they need to call the healthcare provider immediately if the infant experiences a loss of consciousness. This change in alertness may indicate anoxia, which can be life-threatening. Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart defect characterized by four main features: pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. Surgery for Tetralogy of Fallot may be delayed or done in stages. Reporting loss of consciousness is crucial due to the potential seriousness of the condition. Feeding problems, poor weight gain, and fatigue with crying are important issues but do not require immediate reporting like loss of consciousness does.
4. A 38-year-old patient with cirrhosis has ascites and 4+ edema of the feet and legs. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?
- A. Restrict daily dietary protein intake.
- B. Reposition the patient every 4 hours.
- C. Place the patient on a pressure-relieving mattress.
- D. Perform passive range of motion daily.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Placing the patient on a pressure-relieving mattress is crucial to decrease the risk of skin breakdown, especially with significant edema and ascites. Adequate dietary protein intake is essential in patients with ascites to improve oncotic pressure and prevent malnutrition. Repositioning the patient every 4 hours alone may not be sufficient to prevent skin breakdown, especially in areas prone to pressure ulcers. Performing passive range of motion exercises is important for maintaining joint mobility but does not directly address the risk of skin breakdown associated with prolonged pressure on vulnerable areas.
5. A nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral vascular disease (PVD). The patient complains of burning and tingling of the hands and feet and cannot tolerate touch of any kind. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these symptoms?
- A. Inadequate tissue perfusion leading to nerve damage.
- B. Fluid overload leading to compression of nerve tissue.
- C. Sensation distortion due to psychiatric disturbance.
- D. Inflammation of the skin on the hands and feet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients with the peripheral vascular disease often sustain nerve damage as a result of inadequate tissue perfusion. Ischemic rest pain is more worrisome; it refers to pain in the extremity that is due to a combination of PVD and inadequate perfusion. Ischemic rest pain often is exacerbated by poor cardiac output. The condition is often partially or fully relieved by placing the extremity in a dependent position, so that perfusion is enhanced by the effects of gravity.
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