a nurse prepares to care for a 4 year old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma the nurse should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function o
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse prepares to care for a 4-year-old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma. The nurse should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function of which area of the body?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children, originating in striated (skeletal) muscles and potentially affecting any part of the body. Symptoms vary based on the location of the tumor. In the head or neck area, symptoms may include sudden bulging or swelling of the eyes, conjunctival chemosis, and headache. Rhabdomyosarcoma can also impact organs like the urinary or reproductive system. Common metastatic sites include the lungs. Therefore, the nurse should pay attention to the function of all striated muscles in the child to monitor for any signs or symptoms related to the disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as rhabdomyosarcoma primarily involves striated muscles and does not specifically target the cerebellum, kidneys, or leg bones.

2. A child weighing 30 kg arrives at the clinic with diffuse itching as the result of an allergic reaction to an insect bite. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25 mg 3 times a day is prescribed. The correct pediatric dose is 5 mg/kg/day. Which of the following best describes the prescribed drug dose?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct pediatric dose of diphenhydramine is 5 mg/kg/day. This child weighs 30 kg, so the calculated dose would be 5 mg/kg x 30 kg = 150 mg/day. Since the prescription is for 25 mg 3 times a day, the total daily dose is 25 mg x 3 = 75 mg/day, which is lower than the calculated dose of 150 mg/day. Therefore, the prescribed dose of 25 mg 3 times a day is too low for this child. The dose should be adjusted to meet the correct dosage of 150 mg/day, which would be 50 mg 3 times a day. It is important not to titrate the dosage based on symptoms without consulting a physician, as this can lead to inappropriate medication administration.

3. A patient with right lower-lobe pneumonia has been treated with IV antibiotics for 3 days. Which assessment data obtained by the nurse indicates that the treatment has been effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The normal WBC count indicates that the antibiotics have been effective. All the other data suggest that a change in treatment is needed.

4. The infection control nurse is assigned to a patient with osteomyelitis related to a heel ulcer. The wound is 5cm in diameter and the drainage saturates the dressing so that it must be changed every hour. What is her priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention for a patient with osteomyelitis related to a heel ulcer, with a wound that saturates the dressing every hour, is to place the patient under contact precautions. Contact precautions are essential when managing infectious wounds to prevent the spread of infection to healthcare workers, other patients, and visitors. Strict aseptic technique (Choice B) should always be used with wound care but is secondary to implementing contact precautions in this scenario. Placing another dressing (Choice C) or elevating the patient's leg (Choice D) may be necessary but do not address the immediate need for infection control measures.

5. A client is in her third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening. The client's behavior places her at high risk for HIV. Testing is the first step in identifying and managing the risk of HIV infection. Early detection allows for timely interventions and better outcomes. While performing tests for sexually transmitted diseases (choice B) is important, addressing the immediate and potentially life-threatening risk of HIV takes precedence. Discussing the risk for cervical cancer (choice C) is not the priority at this time as HIV screening is more urgent. Referring the client to a family planning clinic (choice D) is not the immediate priority given the client's current high-risk behavior and the need to address the immediate threat of HIV infection.

Similar Questions

What is the most frequent cause for suicide in adolescents?
A patient is admitted to the emergency department with an open stab wound to the left chest. What is the first action that the nurse should take?
A patient is getting discharged from a skilled nursing facility (SNF). The patient has a history of severe COPD and PVD. The patient is primarily concerned about his ability to breathe easily. Which of the following would be the best instruction for this patient?
What would be the most appropriate follow-up by the home care nurse for a 57-year-old male client with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dl and a hematocrit of 32%?
During your evaluation of a 14-year-old girl with a BMI of 18, she reports inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses