Nursing Elites

1. A nurse prepares to care for a 4-year-old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma. The nurse should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function of which area of the body?

• A. All striated muscles
• B. The cerebellum
• C. The kidneys
• D. The leg bones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children, originating in striated (skeletal) muscles and potentially affecting any part of the body. Symptoms vary based on the location of the tumor. In the head or neck area, symptoms may include sudden bulging or swelling of the eyes, conjunctival chemosis, and headache. Rhabdomyosarcoma can also impact organs like the urinary or reproductive system. Common metastatic sites include the lungs. Therefore, the nurse should pay attention to the function of all striated muscles in the child to monitor for any signs or symptoms related to the disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as rhabdomyosarcoma primarily involves striated muscles and does not specifically target the cerebellum, kidneys, or leg bones.

2. Which of the following is TRUE about shock?

• A. A patient with severe shock does not always have an abnormally low blood pressure.
• B. Confusion and deteriorating mentation are indicative of hypotensive shock.
• C. Patients with compensated shock may not be able to maintain a normal blood pressure.
• D. A normal blood pressure does not imply that the patient is stable.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and deteriorating mentation are indeed indicative of hypotensive shock. It is important to note that a patient with hypotensive shock will likely exhibit deteriorating mental status. Choice A is incorrect because a patient in severe shock may not always have an abnormally low blood pressure, making it an unreliable indicator of shock severity. Choice C is incorrect because patients with compensated shock may present with normal blood pressure but still have inadequate tissue perfusion. Choice D is incorrect because a normal blood pressure does not guarantee the patient's stability, especially in cases of shock where tissue perfusion may be compromised despite normal blood pressure readings.

3. The parents of a newborn male with hypospadias want their child circumcised. The best response by the nurse is to inform them that

• A. Circumcision is delayed so the foreskin can be used for the surgical repair
• B. This procedure is contraindicated because of the permanent defect
• C. There is no medical indication for performing a circumcision on any child
• D. The procedure should be performed as soon as the infant is stable

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Circumcision is delayed so the foreskin can be used for the surgical repair. Even if mild hypospadias is suspected, circumcision is not done to save the foreskin for surgical repair if needed. Choice B is incorrect because circumcision is not contraindicated due to a permanent defect; it is delayed for potential surgical needs. Choice C is incorrect as there are situations where a circumcision may be indicated for medical or cultural reasons. Choice D is incorrect because circumcision for hypospadias-related repair is not done immediately but rather delayed to preserve the foreskin for potential reconstructive surgery.

4. A client is seen for testing to rule out Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Which of the following signs or symptoms is associated with this condition?

• A. Fever and rash
• B. Circumoral cyanosis
• C. Elevated glucose levels
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and rash.' Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSP) is caused by the R. rickettsii pathogen, which damages blood vessels. Patients with RMSP typically present with fever, edema, and a rash that initially appears on the hands and feet before spreading across the body. The disease manifests following a tick bite. Choice A is correct as fever and rash are key indicators of RMSP. Circumoral cyanosis (choice B) is not typically associated with RMSP; it refers to a bluish discoloration around the mouth and is more indicative of oxygen deprivation. Elevated glucose levels (choice C) are not specific signs of RMSP. Therefore, choice D, 'All of the above,' is incorrect since only choice A, 'Fever and rash,' is associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.

5. A client with schizophrenia is receiving Haloperidol (Haldol) 5 mg t.i.d.. The client's family is alarmed and calls the clinic when 'his eyes rolled upward.' The nurse recognizes this as what type of side effect?

• A. Oculogyric crisis
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Nystagmus
• D. Dysphagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oculogyric crisis is a known side effect of antipsychotic medications like Haloperidol (Haldol) and is characterized by involuntary upward deviation of the eyes. This condition can be distressing to both the client and their family. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different side effect characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements, especially of the face and tongue, which can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Nystagmus (Choice C) is an involuntary eye movement that is rhythmic and can occur for various reasons but is not specific to Haloperidol use. Dysphagia (Choice D) refers to difficulty swallowing and is not typically associated with the use of Haloperidol.

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