NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. A 5-year-old child has been recently admitted to the hospital. According to Erik Erikson's psychosocial development stages, the child is in which stage?
- A. Trust vs. mistrust
- B. Initiative vs. guilt
- C. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
- D. Intimacy vs. isolation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Initiative vs. guilt.' According to Erik Erikson's psychosocial development stages, children aged 3-6 years old are in the stage of initiative versus guilt. During this stage, children begin to assert their power and control over the environment. They develop a sense of purpose and direction, but may also experience feelings of guilt if they believe their actions have caused harm or conflict. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. 'Trust vs. mistrust' is the first stage for infants, 'Autonomy vs. shame and doubt' is the second stage for toddlers, and 'Intimacy vs. isolation' is a stage that occurs later in adulthood.
2. The best way for a healthcare provider and a healthcare facility to control the effects of poor and disruptive patient behavior is to _________________.
- A. prevent it
- B. restrain the patient
- C. medicate the patient
- D. isolate the patient
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most effective approach to managing poor and disruptive patient behavior is by preventing it proactively. This involves implementing strategies, communication techniques, and environmental modifications that address the underlying causes of the behavior. Restraint, medication, and isolation should only be used as a last resort when the patient or others are at risk of harm. Restraint and isolation are primarily used to ensure safety, while medication, especially when used solely to control behavior, can have adverse effects and is considered a measure of last resort. Therefore, prevention is crucial in promoting a therapeutic environment and fostering positive patient outcomes.
3. For a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder, which reaction is most likely to occur when the performance of a ritual is interrupted?
- A. Anxiety
- B. Hostility
- C. Aggression
- D. Withdrawal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is interrupted while performing a ritual, the most likely reaction is anxiety. The compulsive ritual serves as a coping mechanism to control anxiety, so any disruption to this ritual can heighten the individual's anxiety levels. Hostility is typically part of the disorder itself and not a direct reaction to the interruption of the ritual. Aggression may occur only if anxiety escalates to a panic level, leading to overt anger expression. Withdrawal is not a common behavioral pattern associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder and is not a typical reaction to ritual interruption.
4. The nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient. Which intervention is the best example of a culturally appropriate nursing intervention?
- A. Insist that family members provide most of the patient's personal care.
- B. Maintain a personal space of at least 2 feet when assessing the patient.
- C. Ask permission before touching a patient during the physical assessment.
- D. Consider the patient's ethnicity as an important factor in planning care.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Culturally appropriate nursing care requires sensitivity to the beliefs and practices of diverse cultural groups. Asking permission before touching a patient during a physical assessment is a universally respectful practice, as many cultures consider it disrespectful to touch a person without consent. This approach demonstrates respect for the patient's autonomy and cultural preferences. Maintaining a personal space of at least 2 feet can be a good practice for infection control or personal comfort but may not be culturally significant for all patients. Insisting that family members provide most of the patient's personal care may not align with the patient's cultural norms or preferences. Considering a patient's ethnicity as the most important factor in care planning overlooks the individuality of the patient and may lead to stereotyping or assumptions that are not accurate or helpful in providing tailored care.
5. What step should be taken when administering ear drops to an adult client?
- A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
- B. Hold the dropper 1 cm above the ear canal.
- C. Place a cotton ball into the outermost canal.
- D. Pull the auricle down and back.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct step when administering ear drops to an adult client is to place the client in a side-lying position (A). This position allows for easier administration of the drops and helps prevent spillage. The dropper should be held approximately 1 cm (½ inch) above the ear canal (B) to ensure accurate delivery of the medication. Placing a cotton ball into the outermost canal (C) is unnecessary and may interfere with the absorption of the ear drops. Pulling the auricle down and back (D) is a technique used for children younger than 3 years old to straighten the ear canal, but it is not necessary for adults and may cause discomfort.
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