NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions
1. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?
- A. 18-24 years
- B. 25-34 years
- C. 35-44 years
- D. 45-64 years
Correct answer: D
Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.
2. Which approach is best to use with a client who is angry and agitated?
- A. Confront the client about the behavior.
- B. Turn on the television to distract the client.
- C. Maintain a calm, consistent approach with the client.
- D. Explain to the client why the behavior is unacceptable.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When dealing with an angry and agitated client, it is crucial to maintain a calm and consistent approach. Consistency allows the client to predict the caregiver's behavior, which can help reduce their anxiety and agitation. Confronting the client about their behavior may escalate the situation and increase their anger. Using distractions like turning on the television is not addressing the underlying issue and may not be effective in calming the client. Explaining to the client why their behavior is unacceptable is not suitable in the moment of agitation, as the client may not be in a state to attend to logical explanations and perceived criticisms should be avoided to prevent further escalation.
3. A client who exhibits blurred and double vision and muscular weakness is informed of the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS). The client becomes visibly upset. Which response would the nurse make?
- A. That must have shocked you. Tell me what the health care provider told you about it.
- B. You should see a psychiatrist who will help you cope with this overwhelming news.
- C. Don't worry; early treatment often alleviates the symptoms of the disease.
- D. You should be glad that we caught it early so you can be cured.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The response 'That must have shocked you. Tell me what the health care provider told you about it' acknowledges the effect of the diagnosis on the client and explores what is known. This response shows empathy and encourages the client to share their understanding. There is no evidence of ineffective coping, so a referral to a psychiatrist is not necessary at this initial stage. The statement 'Don't worry; early treatment often alleviates symptoms of the disease' provides false reassurance as the course of MS varies for each individual and may not always respond well to treatment. The statement 'You should be glad we caught it early so it can be cured' does not address the client's current emotional state and is inaccurate; MS is a chronic autoimmune disease that currently has no cure.
4. Which communication technique is a part of therapeutic communication?
- A. Asking for explanations
- B. Showing sympathy to the client
- C. Asking personal questions of the client
- D. Providing relevant information to the client
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is providing relevant information to the client. In therapeutic communication, it is essential to provide clients with all pertinent information to help them understand their health status and what to expect. This empowers clients and promotes trust in the nurse-client relationship. Asking for explanations, showing sympathy, and asking personal questions are examples of nontherapeutic communication techniques. Asking personal questions can intrude on the client's privacy and may not be relevant to their care. Showing sympathy, while well-intentioned, may come across as pity rather than true empathy. Asking for explanations can sometimes put clients on the defensive rather than fostering a collaborative dialogue.
5. A client experiences postpartum hemorrhage eight hours after the birth of twins. Following administration of IV fluids and 500 ml of whole blood, her hemoglobin and hematocrit are within normal limits. She asks the nurse whether she should continue to breastfeed the infants. Which of the following is based on sound rationale?
- A. Nursing will help contract the uterus and reduce your risk of bleeding.
- B. Breastfeeding twins will take too much energy after the hemorrhage.
- C. The blood transfusion may increase the risks to you and the babies.
- D. Lactation should be delayed until the 'real milk' is secreted.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nursing will help contract the uterus and reduce your risk of bleeding.' Stimulation of the breast during nursing releases oxytocin, which contracts the uterus. This contraction is especially important following hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because breastfeeding can actually help prevent further bleeding by promoting uterine contractions. Choice C is incorrect as the blood transfusion is aimed at restoring the client's blood volume and should not significantly impact the babies. Choice D is incorrect as lactation should not be delayed, as breastfeeding can provide numerous benefits to both the mother and infants, including aiding in the prevention of postpartum hemorrhage.
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