NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions
1. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?
- A. 18-24 years
- B. 25-34 years
- C. 35-44 years
- D. 45-64 years
Correct answer: D
Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.
2. Which basic principle of Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) should a client with alcohol use disorder follow?
- A. Spouses should attend Al-Anon meetings.
- B. It is a commitment to focus on long-term goals.
- C. Amends must be made to each person who has been harmed.
- D. People have the power to overcome alcoholism if they truly want to stop drinking.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that amends must be made to each person who has been harmed. This principle is reflected in the eighth step of the 12 steps of AA, which involves making a list of all persons harmed and being willing to make amends to them. It is a fundamental principle of AA to address past harms and seek to rectify them. Choice A is incorrect because spouses attending Al-Anon meetings is not a basic principle of AA; it is a support group for family members of individuals with alcohol use disorder. Choice B is incorrect because while focusing on long-term goals can be beneficial, AA emphasizes taking one day at a time rather than committing to long-term goals. Choice D is incorrect because AA teaches that individuals struggling with alcoholism are powerless over their addiction and need to rely on a higher power rather than solely their willpower to overcome it.
3. The nurse is preparing an older client for discharge. Which method is best for the nurse to use when evaluating the client's ability to perform a dressing change at home?
- A. Determine how well the client can change the dressing.
- B. Ask the client to demonstrate the procedure.
- C. Seek a family member's opinion on the client's dressing change ability.
- D. Observe the client change the dressing unassisted.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best method for the nurse to evaluate the client's ability to perform a dressing change at home is by observing the client change the dressing unassisted. Direct observation allows the nurse to assess if the client has mastered the skill and provides an opportunity to confirm the proficiency. Options A, B, and C do not offer the same level of assessment as direct observation. Option A incorrectly focuses on the client's feelings rather than their actual performance ability. Option B, asking the client to demonstrate the procedure, may not accurately reflect their practical skills. Option C, seeking a family member's opinion, introduces potential bias and may not provide an accurate assessment of the client's ability to perform the dressing change independently.
4. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?
- A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
- B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
- C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
- D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.
5. Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?
- A. Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)
- B. Depression with melancholic features
- C. Major depressive episode with psychotic features
- D. Bipolar depression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A major depressive episode with psychotic features is considered a psychiatric emergency because it poses a significant risk to the individual's safety. Psychotic features in depression can include hallucinations, delusions, or other severe symptoms that require immediate intervention. While Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) and depression with melancholic features are serious conditions, they do not inherently represent an acute emergency that necessitates immediate hospitalization. Bipolar depression, although severe, does not inherently involve psychotic symptoms that would classify it as a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention. It's crucial to recognize the urgency and severity of major depressive episodes with psychotic features to ensure appropriate and timely treatment.
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