Nursing Elites

1. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?

• A. 18-24 years
• B. 25-34 years
• C. 35-44 years
• D. 45-64 years

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.

2. A client is receiving treatment for delusional behavior. He believes that his neighbor is purposefully poisoning his water system in an attempt to make him sick. Which of the following responses of the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Did you have the water tested to be sure?
• B. Why do you feel like your neighbor is trying to poison you?
• C. Let's just sit here and watch this television program.
• D. Don't be silly; your neighbor would do no such thing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client presents with delusional beliefs, the nurse should avoid arguing with the client and should accept the client's initial need to hold onto the delusions. By asking the client 'Why do you feel like your neighbor is trying to poison you?' the nurse encourages the client to express his beliefs further. This open-ended question allows the client to elaborate on his delusions without feeling judged. It helps build trust between the nurse and the client, which is crucial for therapeutic communication. This approach may eventually lead to the client being more receptive to exploring and addressing his delusions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A may come off as dismissive and does not address the client's underlying beliefs. Choice C is a distraction and does not address the client's concerns. Choice D is confrontational and dismissive of the client's beliefs, which can damage the therapeutic relationship.

3. Which behavior by the client exhibits denial after a recent diagnosis?

• A. Attempts to minimize the illness
• B. Lacks an emotional response to the illness
• C. Refuses to discuss the condition with the client's spouse
• D. Expresses displeasure with the prescribed activity program

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Attempts to minimize the illness.' This behavior is a classic sign of denial, where the individual tries to downplay the seriousness of the illness to cope with it. By minimizing the illness, the client avoids facing the reality of the situation, which is characteristic of denial. Lacking an emotional response to the illness suggests suppression of emotions rather than denial. Refusing to discuss the condition with the spouse may stem from other issues like relationship strain or fear of causing distress, but it doesn't directly indicate denial. Expressing displeasure with the prescribed activity program typically reflects displaced anger, not denial of the illness.

4. Which risk factor for suicide is considered the most lethal?

• A. History of alcohol and drug abuse
• B. Previous high-lethality suicide attempts
• C. Recent withdrawal from friends
• D. Disturbance of family dynamics

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Previous high-lethality suicide attempts.' This is the most lethal risk factor as it indicates that the individual has previously attempted suicide in a manner that could lead to death. This history increases the likelihood of future attempts. While substance abuse, like alcohol and drug use, is a significant risk factor for suicide, it is not considered the most lethal. Withdrawal from friends or social isolation can contribute to suicide risk but is not as directly deadly as high-lethality attempts. Disturbance of family dynamics can also be a stressor but does not represent the immediate lethality associated with a history of high-lethality suicide attempts.

5. The client prepares to insert a nasogastric tube in a client with hyperemesis who is awake and alert. Which intervention(s) is(are) correct?

• A. Place the client in a high Fowler position.
• B. Assist the client in assuming a left side-lying position.
• C. Measure the tube from the tip of the nose to the xiphoid process.
• D. Assist the client in flexing the neck forward to facilitate tube insertion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention during nasogastric tube insertion in an awake and alert client is to place them in a high Fowler position (A). Left side-lying position (B) is more suitable for unconscious or obtunded clients. When measuring the tube length, it should be from the tip of the nose to behind the ear, and then from behind the ear to the xiphoid process (C). Assisting the client in flexing the neck forward (D) is appropriate to facilitate tube insertion rather than extending the neck back, which may lead to complications. Proper positioning and measurements are crucial to prevent complications and ensure successful nasogastric tube placement.

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