NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. Which assessment finding is of most concern for a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Abdominal tenderness
- C. Left upper quadrant pain
- D. Palpable abdominal mass
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is a palpable abdominal mass. In a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis, a palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which requires rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common symptoms in acute pancreatitis but do not necessarily indicate an immediate need for surgical intervention. Therefore, the presence of a palpable abdominal mass is the most concerning finding in this scenario.
2. A patient with stage I nonsmall cell lung cancer expresses a preference for chemotherapy over surgery. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Are you concerned about the potential pain from surgery?
- B. Have you had negative experiences with previous surgeries?
- C. Surgery is the recommended treatment for stage I lung cancer.
- D. Tell me about your understanding of the different available treatments.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse in this situation is to gather more information about the patient's concerns and preferences. By asking the patient to share their understanding of the available treatments, the nurse encourages open communication and gains insight into the patient's knowledge and preferences. Option A focuses solely on pain, which may not be the patient's primary concern. Option B assumes negative experiences without exploring the patient's current thoughts. Option C, stating that surgery is the recommended treatment, dismisses the patient's preference and does not address their concerns. Chemotherapy is not the primary treatment for nonsmall cell lung cancer; it may be used for nonresectable tumors or as adjuvant therapy to surgery, making it crucial for the nurse to explore the patient's treatment preferences and understanding.
3. The nurse is caring for a post-surgical client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis. Which intervention is an effective preventive measure?
- A. Use elastic stockings continuously
- B. Encourage range of motion and ambulation
- C. Massage the legs twice daily
- D. Place pillows under the knees
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging range of motion and ambulation is an effective preventive measure for deep vein thrombosis in post-surgical clients. Mobility helps improve blood circulation, reducing the risk of clot formation. Elastic stockings help prevent blood pooling and clotting in the legs by providing external pressure to support venous return. Massaging the legs twice daily may help with circulation but is not as effective as promoting movement and ambulation. Placing pillows under the knees is a comfort measure and does not directly address the prevention of deep vein thrombosis.
4. The mother of a newborn infant with hypospadias asks the nurse why circumcision cannot be performed. Which is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Circumcision will cause an infection.
- B. Circumcision is not performed in a newborn.
- C. Circumcision will cause difficulty with urination.
- D. Circumcision has been delayed to save tissue for surgical repair.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The reason circumcision is not performed in a newborn with hypospadias is that the dorsal foreskin tissue will be needed for the surgical repair of hypospadias. Delaying circumcision allows for the preservation of tissue that will be crucial for the corrective surgery. This surgical repair is typically done within the first year of life to minimize the psychological impact on the child. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the specific reason for delaying circumcision in this case.
5. Which topic is most important to include in patient teaching for a 41-year-old patient diagnosed with early alcoholic cirrhosis?
- A. Maintaining good nutrition
- B. Avoiding alcohol ingestion
- C. Taking lactulose (Cephulac)
- D. Using vitamin B supplements
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important topic to include in patient teaching for a 41-year-old patient diagnosed with early alcoholic cirrhosis is avoiding alcohol ingestion. Alcohol abstinence is crucial in stopping or reversing the progression of the disease. While maintaining good nutrition, taking lactulose (Cephulac), and using vitamin B supplements are important interventions in managing cirrhosis, abstaining from alcohol is the priority for this patient to prevent further damage to the liver and halt disease progression.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access