NCLEX-RN
Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Which example best describes the concept of beneficence?
- A. A nurse provides pain medication for a client in the recovery room who is experiencing pain
- B. A client has an advanced directive in place stating that he does not want intubation if he needs CPR
- C. At the request of the client, a nurse does not inform the family about his cancer diagnosis
- D. A nurse withholds narcotic medication for a client in pain, knowing that he is currently disoriented
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Beneficence is the ethical principle of doing good and acting in the best interest of the client. Providing pain relief to a client in the recovery room who is experiencing pain aligns with beneficence as it promotes the client's well-being and comfort. Choice B is related to autonomy, where the client's wishes regarding treatment are respected. Choice C involves confidentiality and the client's right to privacy. Choice D represents nonmaleficence, as withholding pain medication from a client in pain could cause harm and goes against the principle of doing no harm.
2. Which of the following tasks may be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel?
- A. Cleansing a wound with peroxide
- B. Irrigating a colostomy
- C. Assisting with performing incentive spirometry
- D. Removing a saline-lock IV
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Certain tasks can be safely delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel to assist nurses in their workload. Tasks that involve routine activities like incentive spirometry can be delegated. Unlicensed assistive personnel can assist clients with incentive spirometry, helping in promoting lung expansion and preventing respiratory complications. Cleansing a wound with peroxide (Choice A) and irrigating a colostomy (Choice B) involve more complex procedures that should be performed by licensed healthcare providers due to the risk of infection and potential complications. Removing a saline-lock IV (Choice D) requires specialized training and should only be performed by licensed personnel to prevent complications and ensure patient safety. The nurse remains responsible for delegating tasks appropriately and overseeing the care provided by unlicensed assistive personnel.
3. Who typically owns a patient's medical record?
- A. The patient
- B. The physician
- C. The Legal Counsel of the Office
- D. No one owns a medical record
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'The physician.' Physicians typically own their patients' medical records as they are the ones responsible for creating, updating, and maintaining these records. However, it is essential to note that patients have the legal right to access and obtain copies of their medical records. Choice A ('The patient') is incorrect as patients do not own their medical records, but they do have rights regarding access to them. Choice C ('The Legal Counsel of the Office') is incorrect as legal counsel typically do not own or have ownership rights over medical records. Choice D ('No one owns a medical record') is incorrect as medical records are owned by healthcare providers who create and maintain them, such as physicians.
4. A client is being monitored for decreased tissue perfusion and increased risk of skin breakdown. Which measure best improves tissue perfusion in this client?
- A. Massaging the reddened areas
- B. Performing range of motion exercises
- C. Administering antithrombotics as ordered
- D. Feeding the client a high-carbohydrate diet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For a client at risk of impaired skin integrity due to decreased tissue perfusion, improving mobility is crucial to enhance tissue perfusion and prevent skin breakdown. Range of motion exercises are beneficial to increase circulation and prevent complications. Massaging reddened areas may further damage fragile skin. Administering antithrombotics may be necessary for specific conditions but does not directly address tissue perfusion. Feeding a high-carbohydrate diet does not directly improve tissue perfusion in this context.
5. One of the complications of complete bed rest and immobility is which of the following?
- A. Plantar flexion
- B. Dorsiflexion
- C. Extension contractures
- D. Adduction contractures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Plantar flexion, or foot drop, is a common complication of complete bed rest and immobility. This condition occurs due to the weakening of muscles that lift the foot, leading to the foot dragging or being unable to clear the ground during walking. Dorsiflexion refers to moving the foot upwards, which is not a typical complication of immobility. Extension contractures involve the inability to fully extend a joint, while adduction contractures refer to the inability to move a limb away from the body. These types of contractures can also occur with immobility, but they are not specifically associated with foot drop.
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