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NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. The nurse is working in a support group for clients with HIV. Which point is most important for the nurse to stress?
- A. They must inform household members of their condition.
- B. They must take their medications exactly as prescribed.
- C. They must abstain from substance use.
- D. They must avoid large crowds.
Correct answer: B: They must take their medications exactly as prescribed.
Rationale: The correct answer is that clients with HIV must take their medications exactly as prescribed. Antiretrovirals need to be taken as directed to prevent the development of drug-resistant strains and maintain treatment effectiveness. Missing doses can compromise the effectiveness of future treatments. Choice A, informing household members, is important for social support but not the most critical aspect of managing the condition. Choice C, abstaining from substance use, is important but not as crucial as medication adherence. Choice D, avoiding large crowds, is not directly related to HIV management as long as the individual's immune system is not significantly compromised.
2. A female patient with atrial fibrillation has the following lab results: Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, a platelet count of 150,000, an INR of 2.5, and potassium of 2.7 mEq/L. Which result is critical and should be reported to the physician immediately?
- A. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl
- B. Platelet count of 150,000
- C. INR of 2.5
- D. Potassium of 2.7 mEq/L
Correct answer: Potassium of 2.7 mEq/L
Rationale: The critical lab result that should be reported to the physician immediately in this case is the potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. A potassium imbalance, especially in a patient with a history of dysrhythmia like atrial fibrillation, can be life-threatening and lead to cardiac distress. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can predispose the patient to dangerous arrhythmias, including worsening atrial fibrillation. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, platelet count of 150,000, and an INR of 2.5 are within acceptable ranges and not as immediately concerning as a low potassium level in this clinical context.
3. Which of the following may represent an upper airway obstruction?
- A. Retractions
- B. Elongated expiratory phase
- C. Stridor
- D. Expiratory wheezing
Correct answer: Stridor
Rationale: Stridor is the sound produced by turbulent airflow through a partially obstructed upper airway. It is a classic sign of upper airway obstruction. While an elongated expiratory phase may indicate lower airway obstruction, stridor specifically points to an upper airway issue. Retractions are also often seen in upper airway obstruction due to the increased effort of breathing. Expiratory wheezing, on the other hand, is more indicative of lower airway conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
4. A patient who is displaying the defense mechanism of Compensation would:
- A. Refuse to hear unwanted information.
- B. Transfer feelings of negativity to someone else.
- C. Overemphasize behaviors which accommodate for perceived weaknesses.
- D. Place blame on others for personal actions or mistakes.
Correct answer: Overemphasize behaviors which accommodate for perceived weaknesses.
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Overemphasize behaviors which accommodate for perceived weaknesses.' Compensation involves overemphasizing or exaggerating a particular behavior or trait to make up for or cover up perceived weaknesses in oneself. This defense mechanism allows individuals to focus on their strengths rather than acknowledging their shortcomings. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Refusing to hear unwanted information relates more to denial, transferring feelings of negativity to someone else is projection, and placing blame on others is an example of the defense mechanism known as externalization.
5. A patient with a pleural effusion is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which action should the nurse take to prepare the patient for the procedure?
- A. Start a peripheral IV line to administer any necessary sedative drugs.
- B. Position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward.
- C. Obtain a collection device to hold a reasonable amount of pleural fluid for extraction.
- D. Remove the water pitcher and remind the patient not to eat or drink anything for 6 hours.
Correct answer: Position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward.
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in preparing a patient for a thoracentesis is to position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward. This position helps fluid accumulate at the lung bases, making it easier to locate and remove. Sedation is not usually required for a thoracentesis, so starting an IV line for sedative drugs is unnecessary. Additionally, there are no restrictions on oral intake before the procedure since the patient is not sedated or unconscious. A large collection device to hold 2 to 3 liters of pleural fluid at one time is excessive as usually only 1000 to 1200 mL of pleural fluid is removed to avoid complications like hypotension, hypoxemia, or pulmonary edema. Therefore, the correct choice is to position the patient upright for the procedure.
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