the nurse is using the glasgow coma scale to perform a neurologic assessment a comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus which ac
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NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions

1. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. Which action should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to document that the client responds to the painful stimulus. In this scenario, the client has shown a purposeful response to pain by wincing and pulling away, which should be accurately documented. Verbal stimulation assessment typically follows the assessment of responses to painful stimuli. Placing the client on seizure precautions is not warranted based solely on the observed response to a painful stimulus. Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion movements, is not demonstrated by the client in this case, making it unnecessary to report to the provider.

2. Which priority action would the nurse manager use to help the nurse who may be experiencing burnout?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct priority action for the nurse manager to help a nurse experiencing burnout is to assist the nurse in identifying personal responses to job stress. This involves recognizing work stressors in the environment and evaluating coping strategies to determine their effectiveness. While transferring the nurse to another unit could be a solution, the initial focus should be on self-awareness and coping strategies. Choosing a position on a low-stress unit and attending educational programs can be beneficial in reducing burnout, but they are not the primary steps to address burnout when it occurs.

3. Jerry is a 55-year-old veteran who has been admitted after a motor vehicle accident with multiple injuries. His friend reported that he had been using synthetic marijuana prior to the accident, and that he also sees a psychiatrist at the VA hospital for an unknown diagnosis. He stated that Jerry sometimes gets "hyper"? for no reason, starts "ranting"? and becomes violent. Of the following, which general psychiatric disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bipolar disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes. This disorder is highly co-morbid with substance use, which can worsen the prognosis. While schizophrenia may involve aggression, it is not typically associated with mood episodes like mania that characterize bipolar disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is primarily characterized by re-experiencing traumatic events, avoidance behaviors, and hyperarousal, but not the distinct mood episodes seen in bipolar disorder. Delusional disorder is characterized by fixed false beliefs without the mood changes seen in bipolar disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is Bipolar disorder.

4. A client is being treated for anxiety and desires to be free from anxious feelings and despair. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which level does this client need to meet?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, safety needs come right after physiological needs. Safety needs include feelings of security and stability. When a client is treated for anxiety and seeks to be free from anxious feelings and despair, they are primarily aiming to meet their safety needs. By addressing anxiety and moving towards a sense of safety, the client can progress to addressing higher-level needs. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect in this scenario. Physiological needs (Choice A) refer to basic needs like food, water, and shelter. Belonging (Choice C) and self-esteem (Choice D) are higher-level needs in Maslow's hierarchy that come after safety needs. Therefore, the most appropriate level for the client in this case is safety.

5. Which of the following is an example of non-reversible dementia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Non-reversible dementia refers to a condition where individuals experience permanent and often progressive cognitive decline. Pick's disease is a type of non-reversible dementia characterized by changes in personality, behavior, and language difficulties. Syphilis (Choice B) is a reversible cause of dementia that can be treated with antibiotics. Encephalopathy (Choice C) is a broad term for brain dysfunction that can be reversible or irreversible depending on the cause. Hyperthyroidism (Choice D) can lead to cognitive impairment but is reversible with appropriate treatment. Therefore, Pick's disease is the correct example of non-reversible dementia among the options provided.

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