Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Document that the client responds to the painful stimulus.
• B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
• C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
• D. Report decorticate posturing to the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to document that the client responds to the painful stimulus. In this scenario, the client has shown a purposeful response to pain by wincing and pulling away, which should be accurately documented. Verbal stimulation assessment typically follows the assessment of responses to painful stimuli. Placing the client on seizure precautions is not warranted based solely on the observed response to a painful stimulus. Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion movements, is not demonstrated by the client in this case, making it unnecessary to report to the provider.

2. When administering medications through a nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction, which action should the nurse do first?

• A. Clamp the nasogastric tube
• B. Confirm placement of the tube
• C. Use a syringe to instill the medications
• D. Turn off the intermittent suction device

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering medications through a nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction, the nurse should first turn off the intermittent suction device. This step is crucial to prevent the medications from being immediately suctioned out before they can be absorbed. Clamping the nasogastric tube is not the initial action because it may cause pressure buildup and lead to complications. Confirming the placement of the tube is important but should not be the first step in this scenario. Using a syringe to instill the medications comes after ensuring the suction is turned off to enable proper administration and absorption of the medications.

3. A client undergoing presurgical testing before a total abdominal hysterectomy says to the nurse, 'After I have this surgery I know my husband will never come near me again.' Which response would the nurse give?

• A. You're underestimating how your husband will respond to your surgery.
• B. You're concerned about the effect on your sexual relations.
• C. You're worried that the surgery will change how others see you.
• D. You're concerned about how your husband will respond to your surgery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the client's expressed concern about her husband's reaction to the surgery, encouraging further discussion without imposing the nurse's assumptions. Choice A reframes the client's concern to focus on the husband's response, aligning more closely with the client's stated worry. Choice B makes an assumption about the client's concerns regarding sexual relations, which may not be the primary focus of her statement. Choice C shifts the attention to how others perceive the client, deviating from the client's specific reference to her husband's reaction, thus not addressing the client's main concern.

4. In taking a client's history, the nurse asks about the stool characteristics. Which description should the nurse report to the healthcare provider as soon as possible?

• A. Daily black, sticky stool
• B. Daily dark brown stool
• C. Firm brown stool every other day
• D. Soft light brown stool twice a day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Daily black, sticky stool.' Black sticky stool (melena) is indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious condition that requires immediate attention from the healthcare provider. Options B and D, 'Daily dark brown stool' and 'Soft light brown stool twice a day,' respectively, represent variations of normal stool characteristics and do not raise immediate concerns about the client's health. Option C, 'Firm brown stool every other day,' suggests constipation, which is of lesser concern and can be managed with interventions.

5. During the first meeting of a therapy group, members exhibit frequent periods of silence, tense laughter, and nervous movements. Which conclusion would the nurse make?

• A. The group requires an active leader who will intervene to relieve signs of obvious stress.
• B. The group process is unhealthy and there is unwillingness to openly relate.
• C. The members are displaying expected behaviors because relationships are not yet established.
• D. The behaviors should be immediately addressed so members will not become too uncomfortable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the initial stages of a therapy group, it is common for members to exhibit behaviors such as silence, tense laughter, and nervous movements. These behaviors indicate anxiety and insecurity due to the lack of established relationships and trust among the group members. This is a normal part of group development, and it does not necessarily mean that the group process is unhealthy. Intervening or addressing these behaviors immediately is not required as they are expected in the early stages of group interaction. As the group progresses and relationships are built, these behaviors are likely to diminish naturally without the need for active leader intervention. Therefore, the correct conclusion is that the members are displaying expected behaviors because relationships are not yet established. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because active leader intervention is not necessary, the group process is not unhealthy, and addressing the behaviors immediately is not required as they are part of the early group dynamics and are expected to subside as relationships develop.

Similar Questions