Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Document that the client responds to the painful stimulus.
• B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
• C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
• D. Report decorticate posturing to the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to document that the client responds to the painful stimulus. In this scenario, the client has shown a purposeful response to pain by wincing and pulling away, which should be accurately documented. Verbal stimulation assessment typically follows the assessment of responses to painful stimuli. Placing the client on seizure precautions is not warranted based solely on the observed response to a painful stimulus. Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion movements, is not demonstrated by the client in this case, making it unnecessary to report to the provider.

2. Which of the following is a nursing intervention for a client who is experiencing an acute panic attack?

• A. Encourage the client to sit down in a quiet environment
• B. Allow the client to direct the situation
• C. Try to focus the client on one aspect of care, such as regulating breathing patterns
• D. Speak in a commanding tone of voice to get the client's attention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assisting a client with an acute panic attack, the primary goal is to help reduce their anxiety levels. Encouraging the client to focus on one controllable aspect, like regulating breathing patterns, can aid in calming them down. This intervention helps the client to regain control over their breathing, which can alleviate some of the symptoms associated with panic attacks. Options A and B are incorrect because allowing the client to direct the situation or sit down in a quiet environment may not be beneficial during an acute panic attack. Option D is inappropriate as speaking in a commanding tone can further escalate the client's anxiety rather than helping to calm them down.

3. Which action by a client who requires an above-the-knee amputation for peripheral arterial disease best indicates emotional readiness for the surgery?

• A. Explains the goals of the procedure
• B. Displays few signs of anticipatory grief
• C. Participates in learning perioperative care
• D. Verbalizes acceptance of permanent dependency needs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Participating actively in learning self-care demonstrates emotional acceptance of the need for surgery and readiness for planning post-surgery. Explaining the goals of the procedure may reflect intellectual readiness but not necessarily emotional readiness. A client who shows few signs of anticipatory grief may be suppressing emotions or in denial, which can hinder the emotional readiness. Verbalizing acceptance of permanent dependency needs suggests the client may require further education and emotional support, as it may not reflect a healthy emotional readiness for the surgery.

4. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?

• A. 18-24 years
• B. 25-34 years
• C. 35-44 years
• D. 45-64 years

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.

5. A seriously ill female client tells the nurse, 'I am so tired and in so much pain! Please help me to die.' Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?

• A. Administer the prescribed maximum dose of pain medication.
• B. Talk with the client about her feelings related to her own death.
• C. Collaborate with the healthcare provider about initiating antidepressant therapy.
• D. Refer the client to the ethics committee of her local healthcare facility.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should first assess the client's feelings about her death and determine the extent to which this statement expresses her true feelings. The client may need additional pain management, but further assessment is needed before implementing option A. Option B is the correct response as it focuses on addressing the client's emotional needs and providing support. Option C is premature as initiating antidepressant therapy without a thorough assessment may not be appropriate. Option D is not the best course of action at this point; involving the ethics committee should be considered only after a comprehensive evaluation and discussion with the client.

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