Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

2. What factor is likely the reason a woman with bipolar disorder, manic episode, rarely eats?

• A. Feelings of guilt
• B. Need to control others
• C. Desire for punishment
• D. Excessive physical activity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a manic episode of bipolar disorder, individuals often experience hyperactivity and an inability to stay still. This hyperactivity can manifest as excessive physical activity, which can prevent them from eating regularly. The correct answer is 'Excessive physical activity' because it directly relates to the woman's lack of appetite during the manic episode. Feelings of guilt, the need to control others, and the desire for punishment are not typically associated with eating difficulties in individuals with bipolar disorder during a manic episode. Clients in a manic episode usually have heightened energy levels and may engage in activities that exhaust them, leading to a decreased focus on eating.

3. In the care of a withdrawn, reclusive psychotic client, which goal is the priority?

• A. Establish trust
• B. Increase feelings of self-worth
• C. Solidify sense of identity
• D. Improve ability to socialize

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority goal in the care of a withdrawn, reclusive psychotic client is to establish trust. Trust is fundamental in building a therapeutic relationship, which is essential for effective care. Without trust, the client may not engage in therapy or interventions. Once trust is established, the nurse can then assess the client's feelings of self-worth, sense of identity, and ability to socialize. While these other goals are important in the overall care of the client, establishing trust forms the foundation for further progress in the therapeutic relationship and treatment.

4. Which defense mechanism would the nurse conclude a female client with obsessive-compulsive disorder, who washes her hands more than 20 times a day, is using to ease anxiety?

• A. Undoing
• B. Projection
• C. Introjection
• D. Displacement

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Undoing.' Undoing is a defense mechanism where the individual tries to negate a previous act to relieve guilt or anxiety. In this case, the client washing her hands excessively is trying to 'undo' perceived contamination or guilt associated with not washing. Projection (choice B) involves attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts or impulses to others, which is not demonstrated in this scenario. Introjection (choice C) is the process of internalizing beliefs or values of others, which is also not applicable in this context. Displacement (choice D) involves redirecting emotions from one target to another, which does not align with the client's behavior of handwashing as a response to anxiety in this case.

5. When a man with dementia is admitted to a long-term care facility, his wife, who appears tired and angry, says in a sarcastic tone, 'Let's see what you can do with him.' Which response is therapeutic?

• A. It sounds like it's been difficult for you.'
• B. I don't understand what you mean.'
• C. 'I have experience with all types of clients.'
• D. It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the caregiver's feelings and challenges without blaming them. Option A, 'It sounds like it's been difficult for you,' shows empathy and opens the channel of communication. Options B and C, 'I don't understand what you mean' and 'I have experience with all types of clients,' are nurse-focused responses that block effective communication. Option D, 'It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner,' is a hostile response that shifts the blame to the caregiver, which is not therapeutic in this situation.

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