which of the following medications would not be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions

1. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

2. A client experiences postpartum hemorrhage eight hours after the birth of twins. Following administration of IV fluids and 500 ml of whole blood, her hemoglobin and hematocrit are within normal limits. She asks the nurse whether she should continue to breastfeed the infants. Which of the following is based on sound rationale?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nursing will help contract the uterus and reduce your risk of bleeding.' Stimulation of the breast during nursing releases oxytocin, which contracts the uterus. This contraction is especially important following hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because breastfeeding can actually help prevent further bleeding by promoting uterine contractions. Choice C is incorrect as the blood transfusion is aimed at restoring the client's blood volume and should not significantly impact the babies. Choice D is incorrect as lactation should not be delayed, as breastfeeding can provide numerous benefits to both the mother and infants, including aiding in the prevention of postpartum hemorrhage.

3. An older client who had abdominal surgery 3 days earlier was given a barbiturate for sleep and is now requesting to go to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Barbiturates cause central nervous system (CNS) depression, increasing the risk of falls. Therefore, the nurse should assist the client to the bathroom to ensure safety. Using a bedpan is not necessary if the client can safely walk to the bathroom. Asking about bowel movements or voiding, as in option C, is irrelevant to the immediate safety concern of assisting the client to the bathroom. Assessing the client's bladder, as in option D, is unnecessary in this situation as there is no indication that the client cannot communicate his or her needs effectively. The priority here is to prevent falls and ensure the client's safety while assisting to the bathroom.

4. After receiving written and verbal instructions from a clinic nurse about a newly prescribed medication, a client asks the nurse what to do if questions arise about the medication after getting home. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ensure safe medication use, the nurse should encourage the client to call the clinic nurse or healthcare provider if any questions arise. This direct communication allows for personalized assistance and clarification tailored to the client's specific concerns. Providing Internet sites (Choice A) may lead to unreliable information, and a drug reference book (Choice B) may not address individualized questions. While the written instructions may contain information (Choice C), they may not cover all potential queries the client might have, making direct contact with the healthcare provider the most appropriate option.

5. A client dies while several family members are in the room. Which intervention will the hospice nurse initially use during the shock phase of a grief reaction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the shock phase of a grief reaction, the hospice nurse's initial intervention should be to stay at the bedside with the family and the deceased. This action provides immediate support to the family until coping mechanisms and personal support systems can be mobilized. Directing activities related to funeral arrangements is not within the nurse's role and responsibility. Mobilizing the support systems for the family is important, but staying with the family and the deceased helps in providing immediate comfort and support. Presenting the full reality of the loss to the family is not appropriate during the shock phase as acceptance of the loss takes time and is not the immediate priority.

Similar Questions

After attending group therapy, the client says, 'It helps to know that I'm not the only one with this type of problem.' Which concept does this statement reflect?
While receiving a preoperative enema, a client starts to cry and says, 'I'm sorry you have to do this messy thing for me.' Which is the nurse's best response?
Ten minutes after signing an operative permit for a fractured hip, an older client states, 'The aliens will be coming to get me soon!' and falls asleep. Which action should the nurse implement next?
Which risk factor for suicide is considered the most lethal?
The nurse is assessing a young client who presents with recurrent gastrointestinal disorders. On further assessment, the nurse learns that the client is experiencing job-related pressures. Which is the most important nursing intervention for this client?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses