Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

2. Which term or description would the nurse use for a client who repeatedly performs ritualistic behaviors throughout the day to limit anxious feelings?

• A. Obsessions
• B. Compulsions
• C. Under personal control
• D. Related to rebelliousness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Compulsions.' A compulsion is an uncontrollable, persistent urge to perform an act repetitively to relieve anxiety. In this scenario, the client's repetitive ritualistic behaviors are indicative of compulsions. Obsessions, on the other hand, are persistent ideas, thoughts, or impulses that cannot be eliminated with logical reasoning. The behavior is not under personal control because avoiding it increases anxiety, making it a defense mechanism. It is not related to rebelliousness; instead, clients engage in these behaviors to reduce anxiety.

3. The client admitted for uncontrolled diabetes is worried about how to pay bills for the family while hospitalized. Which statement by the nurse is therapeutic?

• A. "You are worried about paying your bills?"
• B. "Don't worry; your bills will get paid eventually."
• C. "When was the last time you were admitted for hyperglycemia?"
• D. "You really shouldn't be drinking alcohol because of your diagnosis of diabetes."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The therapeutic communication technique used in this scenario is reflection. By repeating the client's concern, the nurse acknowledges the client's feelings and encourages further exploration of the topic. Choice A is correct as it reflects the client's worry without offering false assurance, advice, or using professional jargon. Choice B dismisses the client's concerns with false reassurance. Choice C introduces professional jargon, which may hinder effective communication. Choice D provides advice, which can limit the client's expression of feelings and concerns.

4. A client experiences postpartum hemorrhage eight hours after the birth of twins. Following administration of IV fluids and 500 ml of whole blood, her hemoglobin and hematocrit are within normal limits. She asks the nurse whether she should continue to breastfeed the infants. Which of the following is based on sound rationale?

• A. Nursing will help contract the uterus and reduce your risk of bleeding.
• B. Breastfeeding twins will take too much energy after the hemorrhage.
• C. The blood transfusion may increase the risks to you and the babies.
• D. Lactation should be delayed until the 'real milk' is secreted.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nursing will help contract the uterus and reduce your risk of bleeding.' Stimulation of the breast during nursing releases oxytocin, which contracts the uterus. This contraction is especially important following hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because breastfeeding can actually help prevent further bleeding by promoting uterine contractions. Choice C is incorrect as the blood transfusion is aimed at restoring the client's blood volume and should not significantly impact the babies. Choice D is incorrect as lactation should not be delayed, as breastfeeding can provide numerous benefits to both the mother and infants, including aiding in the prevention of postpartum hemorrhage.

5. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
• B. How active is your current sex life?
• C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
• D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.

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