Nursing Elites

1. Which thought process would the nurse document the mental health client is experiencing after the client says, 'The FBI is out to kill me'?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Error in judgment
• C. Delusion of persecution
• D. Self-accusatory delusion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse would document that the client is experiencing a delusion of persecution. A delusion of persecution is a fixed and firm belief of being harassed, in danger, or at the mercy of others, as illustrated by 'The FBI is out to kill me.' Hallucinations are perceived experiences that occur without actual sensory stimulation. Error in judgment refers to poor decision-making, not a distortion of reality like a delusion. A self-accusatory delusion involves accepting blame for an act that was never committed or a feeling that was never acted on. Therefore, the correct choice is 'Delusion of persecution.'

2. Which response would the nurse make to a client who says, 'The voices say I'll be safe only if I stay in this room, wear these clothes, and avoid stepping on the cracks between the floor tiles'?

• A. Ask whether the voices are male or female and how many there are.
• B. Reassure the client by stating, 'I understand that these voices are real to you, but I want you to know that I don't hear them.'
• C. Offer false reassurance by saying, 'Don't worry"?I've locked the door to your room and won't let anyone in.'
• D. Encourage the client to leave the room and keep busy to distract from the voices.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The response, 'I understand that these voices are real to you, but I want you to know that I don't hear them,' demonstrates empathy and validation of the client's experience while also gently bringing in the nurse's reality. This response acknowledges the client's feelings without reinforcing the hallucinations. Asking about the characteristics of the voices (Choice A) can inadvertently validate the hallucinations. Offering false reassurance (Choice B) may not be helpful as it does not address the client's distress. Encouraging the client to leave the room and keep busy (Choice D) is nontherapeutic as it disregards the client's experience and may increase anxiety.

3. Which initial response would the nurse make to a 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes who sadly confides in the nurse that he has been unable to have an erection for several years?

• A. 'At your age, sex isn't that important.''
• B. ''That is a natural occurrence at your age.''
• C. ''You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.''
• D. 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is, 'You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.' When a client discloses personal information, the nurse should respond in a non-judgmental manner to encourage further communication and gather more details. This response demonstrates empathy and understanding, opening the door for the patient to express his feelings and concerns. Choice A, 'At your age, sex isn't that important,' is dismissive and fails to address the client's emotions or concerns, potentially hindering open communication. Choice B, 'That is a natural occurrence at your age,' provides inaccurate information as the inability to have an erection is not considered a normal part of aging. Choice D, 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this,' while important eventually, should not be the initial response as the nurse should first explore the client's feelings and concerns before discussing potential referrals or interventions.

4. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

5. Which method is used to verify the placement of a newly inserted central venous access device (CVAD)?

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Flushing the line with heparin
• C. Withdrawing blood to ensure patency
• D. Chest fluoroscopy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct method to verify the placement of a newly inserted central venous access device (CVAD) is a chest x-ray. This is crucial to detect any potential complications such as pneumothorax, which can occur during subclavian vein catheter insertion. Symptoms of pneumothorax may include shortness of breath and anxiety. Flushing the line with heparin is not used for placement verification, but rather for maintaining patency after verification. Withdrawing blood to ensure patency is done after placement is confirmed, not for initial verification. Chest fluoroscopy may be used during the insertion process but is not typically employed for placement verification.

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