Nursing Elites

1. Which thought process would the nurse document the mental health client is experiencing after the client says, 'The FBI is out to kill me'?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Error in judgment
• C. Delusion of persecution
• D. Self-accusatory delusion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse would document that the client is experiencing a delusion of persecution. A delusion of persecution is a fixed and firm belief of being harassed, in danger, or at the mercy of others, as illustrated by 'The FBI is out to kill me.' Hallucinations are perceived experiences that occur without actual sensory stimulation. Error in judgment refers to poor decision-making, not a distortion of reality like a delusion. A self-accusatory delusion involves accepting blame for an act that was never committed or a feeling that was never acted on. Therefore, the correct choice is 'Delusion of persecution.'

2. A terminally ill client repeatedly talks about her son's upcoming wedding and how much she wants to attend. Which stage of the K�bler-Ross theory of death and dying is the client displaying?

• A. Anger
• B. Denial
• C. Bargaining
• D. Acceptance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is displaying the stage of bargaining in the K�bler-Ross theory of death and dying. During the bargaining stage, individuals attempt to negotiate for more time or a different outcome in the face of impending death. In this scenario, the client expressing a desire to attend her son's wedding and discussing it frequently reflects a form of bargaining for additional time to be present for the event. Anger, on the other hand, involves extreme expressions of emotion ranging from irritation to rage. Denial is characterized by an inability to accept the reality of the situation. Acceptance signifies coming to terms with the circumstances and may lead to decreased interest in people and surroundings.

3. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?

• A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
• B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
• C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
• D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.

4. A client who has been on hemodialysis for 2 years communicates in an angry, critical manner and does not adhere to the prescribed medications and diet. Which explanation for the client's behavior would be useful to consider in planning care?

• A. An attempt to punish the nursing staff
• B. A constructive method of accepting reality
• C. A defense against underlying depression and fear
• D. An effort to maintain life and to live it as fully as possible

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's angry, critical communication and non-adherence to treatment suggest underlying emotional struggles. The behavior is likely a defense mechanism against feelings of depression and fear. It is essential to consider that the client's actions are not intentionally aimed at punishing others but rather a manifestation of internal distress. Option A is incorrect as the behavior is not about punishing the nursing staff. Option B is incorrect because the behavior is not a constructive way of accepting reality but rather a maladaptive coping mechanism. Option D is incorrect as the behavior is not primarily driven by an effort to maintain life but rather by emotional distress.

5. What action would be most appropriate for the nurse to minimize agitation in a disturbed client?

• A. Ensure minimal staff contact.
• B. Increase environmental sensory stimulation.
• C. Limit unnecessary interactions with the client.
• D. Discuss reasons for the client's suspicions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate action to minimize agitation in a disturbed client is to limit unnecessary interactions. This approach helps reduce stimulation, thus decreasing agitation. Constant staff contact can lead to increased stimulation and agitation. Increasing environmental sensory stimulation can overwhelm the client's senses and escalate agitation. Discussing suspicions may not be beneficial as not all disturbed clients are suspicious and the client may not be in a state to engage in such discussions effectively.

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