NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank
1. The Atlas and the Axis are:
- A. found in the vertebrae.
- B. described as being cervical.
- C. the first two bones that form the column for the spine on the superior aspect.
- D. All of the above.
Correct answer: All of the above.
Rationale: The Atlas and the Axis are the first two cervical vertebrae, designated as C1 and C2. The Atlas (C1) supports the skull, while the Axis (C2) allows for rotation of the skull. Therefore, all the statements in choices A, B, and C are correct, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choice A is correct as the Atlas and Axis are indeed found in the vertebrae. Choice B is correct as they are the first two cervical vertebrae. Choice C is correct as these bones form the superior aspect of the spine.
2. A patient has suddenly developed shortness of breath and appears to be in significant respiratory distress. After calling the physician and placing the patient on oxygen, which of these actions is the best for the nurse to take when further assessing the patient?
- A. Count the patient’s respirations.
- B. Bilaterally percuss the thorax, noting any differences in percussion tones.
- C. Call for a chest x-ray and wait for the results before beginning an assessment.
- D. Inspect the thorax for any new masses and bleeding associated with respirations.
Correct answer: Bilaterally percuss the thorax, noting any differences in percussion tones.
Rationale: In a situation where a patient is in significant respiratory distress, bilaterally percussing the thorax to note any differences in percussion tones is a crucial nursing intervention. Percussion provides instant feedback regarding changes in underlying tissue density, which can give important clues about the patient's physical status. This hands-on assessment technique is readily available and can be performed promptly. Counting the patient's respirations, while important, may not provide as much detailed information as percussion. Ordering a chest x-ray and waiting for the results can cause a delay in assessing and addressing the patient's immediate needs. Inspecting the thorax for new masses and bleeding, although relevant, may not offer as much real-time information about the patient's condition compared to percussion.
3. A 4-month-old child is at the clinic for a well-baby checkup and immunizations. Which of these actions is most appropriate when the nurse is assessing an infant’s vital signs?
- A. The infant’s radial pulse should be palpated, and the nurse should notice any fluctuations resulting from activity or exercise.
- B. The nurse should auscultate an apical rate for 1 minute and then assess for any normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia.
- C. The infant’s blood pressure should be assessed by using a stethoscope with a large diaphragm piece to hear the soft muffled Korotkoff sounds.
- D. The infant’s chest should be observed and the respiratory rate counted for 1 minute; the respiratory pattern may vary significantly.
Correct answer: The nurse should auscultate an apical rate for 1 minute and then assess for any normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia.
Rationale: The nurse auscultates an apical rate, not a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers. The pulse should be counted by listening to the heart for 1 full minute to account for normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia. Children younger than 3 years of age have such small arm vessels; consequently, hearing Korotkoff sounds with a stethoscope is difficult. The nurse should use either an electronic blood pressure device that uses oscillometry or a Doppler ultrasound device to amplify the sounds. An infant’s respiratory rate should be assessed by observing the infant’s abdomen, not chest, because an infant’s respirations are normally more diaphragmatic than thoracic. The nurse should auscultate an apical heart rate, not palpate a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers.
4. The nursing diagnosis is Risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility and pressure secondary to pain and presence of a cast. Which of the following desired outcomes should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Client will be able to turn self by day 3
- B. Skin will remain intact and without redness during hospital stay
- C. Client will state pain relieved within 30 minutes after medication
- D. Pressure will be prevented by repositioning client every 2 hours
Correct answer: Skin will remain intact and without redness during hospital stay
Rationale: The correct desired outcome for a nursing diagnosis of 'Risk for impaired skin integrity' is to ensure that the skin remains intact and without redness during the hospital stay. This outcome directly addresses the risk identified in the diagnosis. Option A focuses on addressing immobility, which is not the priority for this diagnosis. Option C deals with pain relief, which is a separate concern. Option D is an intervention involving pressure prevention through repositioning, rather than an outcome related to skin integrity.
5. A client with an enlarged prostate is having trouble starting his flow of urine when using the bathroom. Another name for this condition is:
- A. Hesitancy
- B. Oliguria
- C. Retention
- D. Urgency
Correct answer: Hesitancy
Rationale: Urinary hesitancy occurs when a client has difficulty starting a flow of urine while using the bathroom. Hesitancy may be due to physiological factors, such as obstruction from an enlarged prostate, or due to psychological factors, such as anxiety or embarrassment. Oliguria refers to decreased urine output, retention is the inability to empty the bladder fully, and urgency is the sudden and strong need to urinate.
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