the discharge planning team is discussing plans for the dismissal of a 16 year old admitted for complications associated with asthma the clients moth
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NCLEX-RN

Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. The discharge planning team is discussing plans for the dismissal of a 16-year-old admitted for complications associated with asthma. The client's mother has not participated in any of the discharge planning processes but has stated that she wants to be involved. Which of the following reasons might prohibit this mother from participating in discharge planning?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is that the client is an emancipated minor. Emancipated minors, even if they are under the age of 18, have the legal right to make decisions about their own healthcare and planning, which may include not wanting their parent involved in the discharge planning process. This status grants them independence from parental involvement in certain situations. The other choices are incorrect because the mother's work schedule, the client's job and possession of a driver's license, and the mother's language proficiency do not inherently prevent her from participating in the discharge planning process, unlike the legal status of being an emancipated minor.

2. The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When membranes are ruptured for over 24 hours before delivery, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Factors such as increased local cytokines, an imbalance in enzyme activity, and increased intrauterine pressure contribute to this risk. 'Altered tissue perfusion' is not the priority in this scenario as there is no indication of compromised blood flow. 'Risk for fluid volume deficit' is not the priority as there are no signs of excessive fluid loss. 'High risk for hemorrhage' is not the priority as the question does not suggest active bleeding as an immediate concern.

3. When a blood pressure cuff is too wide for a client's arm, what type of reading might this blood pressure cuff produce?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a blood pressure cuff is too wide for a client's arm, it may produce an abnormally low blood pressure reading. This occurs because the oversized cuff can lead to an underestimation of blood pressure. It is essential to ensure that the cuff fits appropriately to obtain an accurate reading. An abnormally high reading (Choice C) is less likely with an oversized cuff, as it generally leads to lower readings. A normal reading (Choice A) is unlikely due to the inaccuracies caused by the oversized cuff. A fluctuating reading (Choice D) is not a typical result of using a cuff that is too wide; instead, it usually leads to consistently low readings.

4. Albert is a patient in the hospital who is scheduled for surgery the following morning. After the pre-operative visit from the anesthesia staff member who has obtained surgical consent, Albert asks for an explanation of what type of surgery he is going to have. He states that he's not sure what he just signed. What is your best response?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to ensure that the patient fully understands the nature of the surgery they are about to undergo. If the patient expresses uncertainty about the procedure they signed consent for, it indicates a lack of informed consent, which is essential before any surgery. By requesting the nurse anesthetist to return and provide a more detailed explanation, the patient can make an informed decision. Choices A, B, and D do not address the issue of the patient's lack of understanding and the need for informed consent, making them incorrect. Option C is the best course of action to rectify the situation and ensure the patient's understanding and consent are properly obtained.

5. Which method is most appropriate for managing moral distress in the workplace?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Moral distress involves negative feelings or frustration toward situations that are deemed unfair, unethical, or that cause the nurse to feel helpless in their work. It can lead to nurse burnout when ongoing issues are not resolved. The most appropriate method for managing moral distress is to develop new policies that address the problematic situations. By creating policies, nurses can work towards changing current standards and reducing the number of situations that lead to moral distress. Choices A and B are incorrect because recognizing life's unfairness and not taking action on unjustifiable requests do not actively address the root causes of moral distress or work towards resolving the issues.

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