NCLEX-RN
Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. The discharge planning team is discussing plans for the dismissal of a 16-year-old admitted for complications associated with asthma. The client's mother has not participated in any of the discharge planning processes but has stated that she wants to be involved. Which of the following reasons might prohibit this mother from participating in discharge planning?
- A. The client is an emancipated minor
- B. The mother has to work and is unavailable
- C. The client has a job and a driver's license
- D. The mother does not speak English
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is that the client is an emancipated minor. Emancipated minors, even if they are under the age of 18, have the legal right to make decisions about their own healthcare and planning, which may include not wanting their parent involved in the discharge planning process. This status grants them independence from parental involvement in certain situations. The other choices are incorrect because the mother's work schedule, the client's job and possession of a driver's license, and the mother's language proficiency do not inherently prevent her from participating in the discharge planning process, unlike the legal status of being an emancipated minor.
2. When a mother is inquiring about her child's ability to potty train, what is the most critical aspect of toilet training?
- A. The age of the child
- B. The child's ability to understand instructions
- C. The overall mental and physical abilities of the child
- D. Consistent attempts with positive reinforcement
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most critical aspect of toilet training is the overall mental and physical abilities of the child. While age can play a role, it is not the sole determining factor. Understanding instructions is important but may not be the most critical aspect. Consistent attempts with positive reinforcement can be helpful, but without considering the child's abilities, it may not lead to successful potty training.
3. What is the highest priority for post ECT care?
- A. Observe for confusion
- B. Monitor respiratory status
- C. Reorient to time, place, and person
- D. Document the client's response to the treatment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The highest priority for post ECT care is to monitor respiratory status. This is crucial because a life-threatening side effect of ECT is respiratory arrest. While observing for confusion and reorienting the client are important aspects of post ECT care, they are not as critical as ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable. Documenting the client's response to treatment is also important for maintaining accurate medical records, but it is not the highest priority immediately post ECT.
4. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
- C. Biot's respirations
- D. Cluster breathing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mr. N is exhibiting Kussmaul respirations, characterized by rapid, deep, and regular breathing. This type of respiratory pattern is commonly seen in metabolic acidosis, such as in diabetic ketoacidosis. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation, leading to the elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. Choice B, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, is characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea and is not typically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, Biot's respirations, involve irregular breathing patterns with periods of apnea and are not reflective of the described breathing pattern. Cluster breathing, as mentioned in Choice D, is not a recognized term in respiratory patterns and does not describe the breathing pattern observed in Mr. N.
5. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?
- A. Following surgery
- B. Upon admission
- C. Within 48 hours of discharge
- D. Preoperative discussion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.
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