NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A client needs to give informed consent for electroconvulsive therapy treatments. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Explain the adverse effects the client might experience from the treatment
- B. Verify the client gave consent voluntarily for the treatment
- C. Describe the benefits of the treatment to the client
- D. Outline possible alternatives to the treatment for the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When obtaining informed consent for a procedure like electroconvulsive therapy, the nurse's primary responsibility is to ensure that the client has given consent voluntarily and is capable of making such a decision. While it is essential to provide information on the treatment's benefits, risks, and alternatives, the priority is to verify the client's voluntary consent. Explaining the adverse effects and describing the benefits are important steps in the informed consent process, but the critical step is to confirm the client's voluntary agreement. Outlining possible alternatives to the treatment is also important but comes after ensuring the client's voluntary consent.
2. Mrs. M has had diabetes for seven years. She has worked hard to control her blood glucose levels and watch her dietary intake. Her physician orders a hemoglobin A1C test. Which of the following best describes the action of this test?
- A. The test determines if the client is anemic and needs iron supplements
- B. The test determines if there is excess glucose building up in the urine
- C. The test determines the amount of hemoglobin reaching the liver to support gluconeogenesis
- D. The test determines the amount of hemoglobin that is coated with glucose
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A hemoglobin A1C test, also known as a glycated hemoglobin test, determines the amount of hemoglobin that is coated with glucose. Excess glucose in the bloodstream may cause it to attach to hemoglobin on red blood cells. Because the life of these cells is between 2 and 3 months, the hemoglobin A1C is an accurate measurement of a client's glucose during that time. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A relates to anemia and iron supplements, which are not assessed by a hemoglobin A1C test. Choice B mentions excess glucose in the urine, which is typically assessed through a urine glucose test, not the hemoglobin A1C test. Choice C is incorrect as the test is not related to the amount of hemoglobin reaching the liver to support gluconeogenesis; instead, it specifically measures the amount of hemoglobin that is glycated or coated with glucose.
3. The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?
- A. Altered tissue perfusion
- B. Risk for fluid volume deficit
- C. High risk for hemorrhage
- D. Risk for infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When membranes are ruptured for over 24 hours before delivery, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Factors such as increased local cytokines, an imbalance in enzyme activity, and increased intrauterine pressure contribute to this risk. 'Altered tissue perfusion' is not the priority in this scenario as there is no indication of compromised blood flow. 'Risk for fluid volume deficit' is not the priority as there are no signs of excessive fluid loss. 'High risk for hemorrhage' is not the priority as the question does not suggest active bleeding as an immediate concern.
4. You are taking care of Mary Eden, an elderly and frail 91-year-old resident. She gets confused during evening hours and at times she thinks that she hears her daughter calling her from the other side of the nursing home. Which physical problem places Mary Eden at risk for falls?
- A. Her confusion
- B. Her daughter
- C. Evening hours
- D. Her frailness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Mary Eden's frail and weak muscles due to her age and physical condition place her at risk for falls. While her confusion can contribute to falls, it is considered an emotional or cognitive issue rather than a physical problem. Her daughter and the evening hours are not physical problems that directly increase her risk of falling.
5. Mr. G has been admitted to the hospital with a head injury after a 12-foot fall. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate when monitoring intracranial pressure?
- A. Administer hypotonic solutions
- B. Keep the head of the bed elevated
- C. Increase the client's core body temperature to 99.9 degrees
- D. Administer corticosteroids as ordered
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering corticosteroids as ordered is appropriate when monitoring intracranial pressure in clients at risk of increased pressure to reduce brain tissue swelling. Elevating the head of the bed helps in managing intracranial pressure by promoting venous drainage. Administering hypertonic solutions is used to reduce brain edema and control intracranial pressure. Increasing the client's core body temperature is not recommended as it can exacerbate brain injury. Corticosteroids are not routinely used for all head injuries but may be indicated in specific cases, such as certain types of brain injuries where swelling needs to be controlled.
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