Nursing Elites

1. A client needs to give informed consent for electroconvulsive therapy treatments. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Explain the adverse effects the client might experience from the treatment
• B. Verify the client gave consent voluntarily for the treatment
• C. Describe the benefits of the treatment to the client
• D. Outline possible alternatives to the treatment for the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When obtaining informed consent for a procedure like electroconvulsive therapy, the nurse's primary responsibility is to ensure that the client has given consent voluntarily and is capable of making such a decision. While it is essential to provide information on the treatment's benefits, risks, and alternatives, the priority is to verify the client's voluntary consent. Explaining the adverse effects and describing the benefits are important steps in the informed consent process, but the critical step is to confirm the client's voluntary agreement. Outlining possible alternatives to the treatment is also important but comes after ensuring the client's voluntary consent.

2. What preparation is necessary for a colposcopy procedure?

• A. NPO for 8-12 hours before the procedure.
• B. D/C all hypertension medications for two days prior to the procedure.
• C. Take three Dulcolax tablets and two containers of Miralax the day before to clear out the lower GI system.
• D. None of the above prep is necessary for this type of procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A colposcopy procedure is performed to examine the vagina and cervix. The only preparation required is washing the external genitals with soap and water on the morning of the procedure. Choices A, B, and C suggest unnecessary preparations that are not relevant to a colposcopy. NPO for 8-12 hours, discontinuing hypertension medications, and using laxatives are not part of the standard preparation for a colposcopy.

3. While caring for a client in labor, a nurse attaches an electronic fetal monitor to the client's abdomen to assess the baby's heart rate. The nurse observes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction and does not return to normal limits until after the contraction is complete. What type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?

• A. Variable decelerations
• B. Late decelerations
• C. Early decelerations
• D. Accelerations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations are characterized by the baby's heart rate declining in utero during contractions. The heart rate drops below baseline and stays low until after the contraction ends. Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can compromise fetal oxygenation. This pattern is a non-reassuring sign and requires immediate intervention. Variable decelerations are typically abrupt decreases in heart rate, often associated with cord compression. Early decelerations, on the other hand, mirror the contractions and are considered benign, resulting from fetal head compression. Accelerations are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, indicating a responsive and healthy fetal nervous system.

4. In a clinic in a primarily African American community, a higher incidence of uncontrolled hypertension is noted in patients. To correct this health disparity, what should the nurse do first?

• A. Initiate a regular home-visit program by clinic nurses.
• B. Schedule teaching sessions about low-salt diets at community events.
• C. Assess the perceptions of community members about the care at the clinic.
• D. Obtain low-cost antihypertensive drugs using government grant funding.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To address the higher incidence of uncontrolled hypertension in the primarily African American community, the nurse should first assess the perceptions of community members about the care at the clinic. Understanding the community's perspective can provide valuable insights into the reasons behind the health disparity. Initiating a regular home-visit program or scheduling teaching sessions about low-salt diets are important interventions but should come after gathering information on community perceptions. Obtaining low-cost antihypertensive drugs is not the initial priority; understanding community perspectives is crucial for developing effective interventions.

5. If a healthcare professional prevents intentional harm from occurring to a patient, which ethical principle is being supported?

• A. Beneficence
• B. Nonmaleficence
• C. Justice
• D. Fidelity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle that emphasizes the obligation to avoid causing harm intentionally. In this scenario, by preventing intentional harm to a patient, the healthcare professional is upholding the principle of nonmaleficence. Beneficence, although important, focuses on doing good and promoting well-being rather than solely preventing harm. Justice relates to fairness and equality in resource distribution, while fidelity involves being faithful and keeping promises, which are not directly applicable to the situation of preventing intentional harm to a patient.

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