NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions With Rationale
1. You are on the unit and overhear another nurse talking on the phone to a patient's friend who wants to see her patient who is comatose and on a ventilator. Since you cared for that patient yesterday, you know that the patient's significant other, who is also the designated healthcare surrogate (HCS) and has power of attorney (POA), has expressly stated that he wants this person on the list for restricted visitors. The nurse whispers that she'll call him to visit as soon as the significant other has gone home. What should your first response be?
- A. Inform the significant other
- B. Report the nurse to the nurse manager
- C. Speak with the nurse directly in private
- D. Call the visitor and tell him he can't visit
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Speaking with the nurse directly and privately is the most constructive manner in which to handle this situation and advocate for the significant other's wishes. Doing so will open communication with a peer and build the relationship, instead of alienating the other nurse by taking action that does not involve her and will cast her in a negative light with others. It is essential to express your concerns regarding honoring the significant other's requests and rights regarding the limitation of visitors. Option A is incorrect because the significant other is not the one trying to visit, and it is more appropriate to address the nurse directly first. Option B is not the best initial response as it may escalate the situation without giving the nurse a chance to correct the issue. Option D is incorrect as it does not address the issue at its source and may create further conflict without resolving the underlying problem.
2. Which of the following is an example of intragroup conflict?
- A. A nurse writes a grant for a non-profit organization to raise money for advertising
- B. Members of a multidisciplinary team cannot agree on the best course of action for a client
- C. A client does not receive his medication on time because the nurse was on break
- D. A nurse feels frustrated that her employer does not provide on-site child care
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Intragroup conflict refers to disagreements within a group. The correct answer, 'Members of a multidisciplinary team cannot agree on the best course of action for a client,' exemplifies this type of conflict well. In this scenario, professionals within the same team are unable to reach a consensus on how to proceed with client care. Choices A, C, and D do not reflect intragroup conflict. Writing a grant for a non-profit organization, a client not receiving medication due to a nurse's break, and a nurse feeling frustrated about the lack of on-site child care do not involve conflicts within a group of professionals.
3. What is the highest priority for post ECT care?
- A. Observe for confusion
- B. Monitor respiratory status
- C. Reorient to time, place, and person
- D. Document the client's response to the treatment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The highest priority for post ECT care is to monitor respiratory status. This is crucial because a life-threatening side effect of ECT is respiratory arrest. While observing for confusion and reorienting the client are important aspects of post ECT care, they are not as critical as ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable. Documenting the client's response to treatment is also important for maintaining accurate medical records, but it is not the highest priority immediately post ECT.
4. Which of these devices is considered a protective device, rather than a restraint?
- A. A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching
- B. A mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out
- C. A side rail to prevent the patient from falling
- D. A soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching is considered a protective device because its primary purpose is to protect the patient from harming themselves by scratching. It does not restrict the patient's movement. Choice B, a mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out, is considered a restraint as it limits the patient's movement. Choice C, a side rail to prevent the patient from falling, is also a protective device as it aims to keep the patient safe by providing support and preventing falls. Choice D, a soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing, is a type of restraint as it restricts the patient's movement to prevent them from interfering with medical equipment.
5. A client must use a non-rebreathing oxygen mask. Which of the following statements is true regarding this type of mask?
- A. A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%.
- B. A client should breathe through his or her mouth when using a non-rebreather.
- C. A non-rebreather offers a reservoir from which the client inhales.
- D. The mask of a non-rebreather should be changed every 3 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A non-rebreather mask is used for supplemental oxygen delivery for clients experiencing breathing difficulties. The non-rebreather mask includes a one-way valve that allows exhaled air to escape, preventing the rebreathing of carbon dioxide. The client inhales oxygenated air from a reservoir bag attached to the mask, providing high-concentration oxygen therapy. A non-rebreather mask can deliver FiO2 levels of up to 90%, making it an effective intervention for clients requiring high oxygen concentrations. Therefore, the statement that 'A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%' is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clients should breathe through their nose and mouth, the mask offers a reservoir for inhaling oxygen, and the mask should be assessed and potentially replaced if soiled or damaged, not routinely changed every 3 hours.
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