a nurse frequently treats patients in the 72 hour period after a stroke has occurred the nurse would be most concerned about which of these assessment
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NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers

1. A nurse frequently treats patients in the 72-hour period after a stroke has occurred. The nurse would be most concerned about which of these assessment findings?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse would be most concerned about the assessment finding of an Intracranial Pressure (ICP) reading of 22 mmHg in a patient 72 hours post-stroke. Elevated ICP can indicate increased risk of edema and further brain damage. A target ICP should ideally be maintained at less than or equal to 15-20 mmHg. While the other options may also be important to monitor, an elevated ICP poses a more immediate threat to the patient's neurological status and requires prompt attention.

2. A systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg is classified as:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg falls within the range of 140-159 mm Hg, which is classified as Stage I hypertension. Normotensive individuals have a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg, making choice A incorrect. Prehypertension is characterized by a systolic blood pressure ranging from 120-139 mm Hg, excluding choice B. Stage II hypertension is diagnosed when the systolic blood pressure is greater than 160 mm Hg, making choice D incorrect. Therefore, the correct classification for a systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg is Stage I hypertension.

3. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for a stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old male who has a combination of significant risk factors for stroke, including atrial fibrillation, a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), and obesity. These factors greatly increase his risk of stroke. While other choices may have some individual risk factors, they do not collectively pose as high a risk as the patient described in option A. Option B includes migraines and alcohol consumption but lacks other major risk factors seen in option A. Option C mentions high cholesterol and oral contraceptives, which are risk factors but not as significant as atrial fibrillation and a prior TIA. Option D includes smoking and sickle cell disease but lacks the crucial risk factors present in option A.

4. A patient with stage I nonsmall cell lung cancer expresses a preference for chemotherapy over surgery. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse in this situation is to gather more information about the patient's concerns and preferences. By asking the patient to share their understanding of the available treatments, the nurse encourages open communication and gains insight into the patient's knowledge and preferences. Option A focuses solely on pain, which may not be the patient's primary concern. Option B assumes negative experiences without exploring the patient's current thoughts. Option C, stating that surgery is the recommended treatment, dismisses the patient's preference and does not address their concerns. Chemotherapy is not the primary treatment for nonsmall cell lung cancer; it may be used for nonresectable tumors or as adjuvant therapy to surgery, making it crucial for the nurse to explore the patient's treatment preferences and understanding.

5. The parents of a child with a hernia are instructed by the nurse on measures to reduce the hernia. Which statement indicates the parents understand the care for their child?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is providing comfort measures to reduce any crying periods by the child. This can include offering a warm bath, avoiding upright positioning, and using other comfort measures to reduce crying, which can help reduce a hernia. Encouraging coughing or physical activity can increase strain on the hernia. Giving a Fleet enema daily for constipation is not recommended as it can also increase strain on the hernia.

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