during a routine assessment an obese 50 year old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband which is the best res
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions

1. During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Option D is the best response as it allows the client to express her specific concerns, providing the nurse with valuable assessment data. This open-ended question encourages the client to share her worries and feelings, which can guide the nurse in addressing her unique needs. Options A and B make assumptions about the client's concerns based on her weight, potentially invalidating her feelings and inhibiting effective communication. Option C is premature as understanding the client's concerns should precede discussions about the frequency of sexual intercourse, which may not address the core issues the client is facing.

2. During the beginning phase of a therapeutic relationship, why is a clear understanding of participants' roles important?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the initial stages of a therapeutic relationship, having a clear understanding of participants' roles is crucial as it helps in defining the structure and boundaries of the relationship. This clarity assists in setting expectations and establishing a framework for interaction, allowing the client to focus on the therapeutic process rather than on uncertainties regarding their role or the nurse's role. Option A, understanding what will be discussed, is important but not directly related to defining roles. Option B, knowing that the nurse is trying to be helpful, is about the intent of the nurse rather than the roles of the participants. Option D, preparing for termination of the relationship, is premature in the beginning phase and not directly related to understanding roles.

3. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. Which action should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to document that the client responds to the painful stimulus. In this scenario, the client has shown a purposeful response to pain by wincing and pulling away, which should be accurately documented. Verbal stimulation assessment typically follows the assessment of responses to painful stimuli. Placing the client on seizure precautions is not warranted based solely on the observed response to a painful stimulus. Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion movements, is not demonstrated by the client in this case, making it unnecessary to report to the provider.

4. A client with untreatable metastasized cancer tells the nurse, 'I think they made a mistake. I don't think I have cancer. I feel too good to be dying.' Which stage of grief is the client experiencing?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is experiencing the stage of denial. This is evident as the client is having difficulty accepting the reality of their diagnosis and denies the presence of cancer despite the evidence. During the anger stage, the individual expresses anger about their situation, questioning why it is happening to them. Bargaining involves attempting to negotiate for more time or a different outcome, acknowledging the reality of death but trying to delay it. Acceptance, on the other hand, is characterized by coming to terms with the inevitability of death and preparing for it peacefully. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's disbelief and refusal to accept the diagnosis align with the denial stage of grief.

5. A client who exhibits blurred and double vision and muscular weakness is informed of the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS). The client becomes visibly upset. Which response would the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The response 'That must have shocked you. Tell me what the health care provider told you about it' acknowledges the effect of the diagnosis on the client and explores what is known. This response shows empathy and encourages the client to share their understanding. There is no evidence of ineffective coping, so a referral to a psychiatrist is not necessary at this initial stage. The statement 'Don't worry; early treatment often alleviates symptoms of the disease' provides false reassurance as the course of MS varies for each individual and may not always respond well to treatment. The statement 'You should be glad we caught it early so it can be cured' does not address the client's current emotional state and is inaccurate; MS is a chronic autoimmune disease that currently has no cure.

Similar Questions

According to psychodynamic theory, what purpose do delusions serve?
The nurse determines that a postoperative client's respiratory rate has increased from 18 to 24 breaths/min. Based on this assessment finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Which characteristic is associated with anorexia nervosa?
The wife of a client who is dying says, 'I want to see him, but I can only come twice a week because of work, household chores, and caring for our cat and dog.' Which defense mechanism is the wife using?
What action would be most appropriate for the nurse to minimize agitation in a disturbed client?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses