Nursing Elites

1. Which characteristic is associated with anorexia nervosa?

• A. Manic
• B. Rebellious
• C. Hypoactive
• D. Perfectionistic

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Individuals with anorexia nervosa often exhibit perfectionistic traits, characterized by rigid standards and extreme self-discipline as a way to maintain control and fulfill personal and societal expectations. The focus on achieving an ideal body image through strict dietary habits and excessive exercise is a common manifestation of this perfectionism. The incorrect choices are: A) 'Manic' is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa; individuals with this disorder are more likely to experience anxiety and depression. B) 'Rebellious' does not align with the usual behavior seen in individuals with anorexia nervosa, who tend to comply with societal expectations rather than rebel against them. C) 'Hypoactive' does not describe the characteristic behavior of individuals with anorexia nervosa, who often engage in excessive physical activity as a means of weight loss.

2. Which of the following is an example of non-reversible dementia?

• A. Pick's disease
• B. Syphilis
• C. Encephalopathy
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Non-reversible dementia refers to a condition where individuals experience permanent and often progressive cognitive decline. Pick's disease is a type of non-reversible dementia characterized by changes in personality, behavior, and language difficulties. Syphilis (Choice B) is a reversible cause of dementia that can be treated with antibiotics. Encephalopathy (Choice C) is a broad term for brain dysfunction that can be reversible or irreversible depending on the cause. Hyperthyroidism (Choice D) can lead to cognitive impairment but is reversible with appropriate treatment. Therefore, Pick's disease is the correct example of non-reversible dementia among the options provided.

3. Nursing behaviors associated with the implementation phase of the nursing process are concerned with:

• A. participating in the mutual identification of patient outcomes.
• B. gathering accurate and sufficient patient-centered data.
• C. comparing patient responses and expected outcomes.
• D. carrying out interventions and coordinating care.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the implementation phase of the nursing process, nurses focus on executing interventions and coordinating care. This involves utilizing available resources, performing necessary interventions, exploring alternatives when needed, and collaborating with other healthcare team members to ensure comprehensive care delivery. Choice A is incorrect as it pertains more to the planning phase where patient outcomes are identified. Choice B is incorrect as it relates to data collection, which is primarily a part of the assessment phase. Choice C is incorrect as it involves evaluating patient responses against expected outcomes, which is part of the evaluation phase.

4. The nurse assesses a 2-year-old who is admitted for dehydration and finds that the peripheral IV rate by gravity has slowed, even though the venous access site is healthy. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Apply a warm compress proximal to the site.
• B. Check for kinks in the tubing and raise the IV pole.
• C. Adjust the tape that stabilizes the needle.
• D. Flush with normal saline and recount the drop rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When encountering a slowed peripheral IV rate, the nurse should initially check for common factors affecting infusion rates. Factors such as the height of the IV bag, presence of kinks in the tubing, needle size or position, client blood pressure, fluid viscosity, and infiltration can impact the rate. It is crucial to ensure the tubing is free of any kinks and that the IV pole is at an appropriate height to facilitate proper flow by gravity. Applying warmth proximal to the site might help with venospasm, but this intervention should come after ensuring proper tubing flow. Adjusting the tape that stabilizes the needle or flushing with normal saline may be necessary later in the troubleshooting process, but these actions should follow checking for kinks and adjusting the IV pole height, which are less invasive interventions.

5. When performing a return demonstration of using a gait belt for a female patient with right-sided weakness, which observation indicates that the caregiver has learned the correct procedure?

• A. Standing on the female patient's strong side, the caregiver is ready to hold the gait belt if any evidence of weakness is observed.
• B. Standing on the female patient's weak side, the caregiver provides security by holding the gait belt from the back.
• C. Standing behind the female patient, the caregiver provides balance by holding both sides of the gait belt.
• D. Standing slightly in front and to the right of the female patient, the caregiver guides her forward by gently pulling on the gait belt.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assisting a patient with right-sided weakness using a gait belt, the caregiver must stand on the weak side of the patient to provide optimal support and security. By standing on the weak side and holding the gait belt from the back, the caregiver can effectively prevent falls and guide the patient's movements. This position allows for better control over the patient's balance. Standing on the strong side (option A) does not offer the necessary support if the patient leans towards the weak side. Standing behind the patient and holding both sides of the gait belt (option C) does not provide focused support to the weak side. Standing slightly in front and to the right (option D) may not offer adequate assistance to prevent falls on the weak side, making it an incorrect choice.

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