Nursing Elites

1. A patient has just been admitted with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis. Which order should the nurse implement first?

• A. Performing a chest x-ray via stretcher
• B. Obtaining blood cultures from two sites
• C. Administering Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 400 mg IV
• D. Inserting an Acetaminophen (Tylenol) rectal suppository

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a patient with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis, the priority intervention is to obtain blood cultures from two sites before initiating antibiotic therapy. This is crucial to identify the causative organism and guide appropriate antibiotic treatment. Administering antibiotics without obtaining cultures first can interfere with accurate results. Performing a chest x-ray and administering acetaminophen can be done after obtaining blood cultures as they are important but not as urgent as identifying the causative organism in sepsis.

2. A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old child after corrective surgery for Tetralogy of Fallot. The mother reports that the child has suddenly begun seizing. The nurse recognizes this problem is probably due to

• A. A cerebral vascular accident
• B. Postoperative meningitis
• C. Medication reaction
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a cerebral vascular accident. Polycythemia occurs as a physiological reaction to chronic hypoxemia, which commonly occurs in clients with Tetralogy of Fallot. Polycythemia and the resultant increased viscosity of the blood increase the risk of thromboembolic events, including cerebrovascular accidents. Signs and symptoms of a cerebral vascular accident include sudden paralysis, altered speech, extreme irritability or fatigue, and seizures. Postoperative meningitis (choice B) is less likely in this scenario as the sudden onset of seizing is more indicative of a vascular event rather than an infection. Medication reaction (choice C) is not the most probable cause given the history provided. Metabolic alkalosis (choice D) is not associated with sudden seizing in this context.

3. When assessing a child admitted to the hospital with pyloric stenosis, which symptom would the nurse likely find when asking the parent about the child's symptoms?

• A. Watery diarrhea
• B. Projectile vomiting
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Vomiting large amounts of bile

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pyloric stenosis, hypertrophy of the circular muscles of the pylorus causes narrowing of the pyloric canal between the stomach and the duodenum. The hallmark symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which is the forceful expulsion of stomach contents. Other common symptoms include irritability, hunger and crying, constipation, and signs of dehydration. Watery diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical symptom of pyloric stenosis. Increased urine output (Choice C) is not directly associated with this condition. Vomiting large amounts of bile (Choice D) is not a characteristic symptom of pyloric stenosis; instead, the vomitus in pyloric stenosis is non-bilious.

4. The patient's symptoms, lack of antibodies for hepatitis, and the abrupt onset of symptoms suggest toxic hepatitis, which can be caused by commonly used over-the-counter drugs such as acetaminophen (Tylenol). Travel to a foreign country and a history of IV drug use are risk factors for viral hepatitis. Corticosteroid use does not cause the symptoms listed.

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Temperature
• C. Activity level
• D. Albumin level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The low oncotic pressure caused by hypoalbuminemia is a major pathophysiologic factor in the development of edema. In this case, monitoring the albumin level is crucial to assess the patient's fluid balance and potential for edema. While hemoglobin, temperature, and activity level are important parameters to monitor in a patient's assessment, they are not directly associated with the patient's current symptoms of toxic hepatitis and edema development. Therefore, the correct choice is the albumin level.

5. A client comes to the clinic for treatment of recurrent pelvic inflammatory disease. The nurse recognizes that this condition most frequently follows which type of infection?

• A. Trichomoniasis
• B. Chlamydia
• C. Staphylococcus
• D. Streptococcus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chlamydial infections are one of the most common causes of salpingitis or pelvic inflammatory disease. Chlamydia can ascend from the vagina or cervix to the reproductive organs, leading to inflammation and infection. Trichomoniasis, caused by a parasite, typically presents with different symptoms than pelvic inflammatory disease and is not the primary cause. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are bacteria that can cause other types of infections but are not the primary culprits in most cases of pelvic inflammatory disease.

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