NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. A patient has just been admitted with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis. Which order should the nurse implement first?
- A. Performing a chest x-ray via stretcher
- B. Obtaining blood cultures from two sites
- C. Administering Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 400 mg IV
- D. Inserting an Acetaminophen (Tylenol) rectal suppository
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a patient with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis, the priority intervention is to obtain blood cultures from two sites before initiating antibiotic therapy. This is crucial to identify the causative organism and guide appropriate antibiotic treatment. Administering antibiotics without obtaining cultures first can interfere with accurate results. Performing a chest x-ray and administering acetaminophen can be done after obtaining blood cultures as they are important but not as urgent as identifying the causative organism in sepsis.
2. The major difference between a grand mal and petit mal seizure is that a person with a grand mal seizure will have _______________ and the person with a petit mal seizure will not.
- A. convulsive movements
- B. sleep apnea
- C. atonic movements
- D. flaccidity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The major difference between a grand mal and petit mal seizure is the presence or absence of convulsive movements. Grand mal seizures are characterized by convulsive movements, including jerking of limbs and loss of consciousness. In contrast, petit mal seizures, also known as absence seizures, typically involve brief episodes of staring or eye blinking without convulsive movements. Therefore, choice A, 'convulsive movements,' is the correct answer. Choices B, 'sleep apnea,' and D, 'flaccidity,' are incorrect as they are not associated with the characteristics of grand mal or petit mal seizures. Choice C, 'atonic movements,' is also incorrect as petit mal seizures do not involve atonic movements, but rather absence behaviors such as staring spells.
3. A 7-year-old child is seen in a clinic, and the pediatrician documents a diagnosis of nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis. What information should the nurse provide to the parents?
- A. Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis does not respond to treatment.
- B. Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is caused by a psychiatric problem.
- C. Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis requires surgical intervention to improve the problem.
- D. Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is usually outgrown without therapeutic intervention.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is common in children and is characterized by a child who has never been dry at night for extended periods. Most children eventually outgrow bedwetting without therapeutic intervention. This condition is due to the child being unable to sense a full bladder and not awakening to void, often related to delayed maturation of the central nervous system. It is important for parents to understand that nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is not caused by a psychiatric problem, does not typically require surgical intervention, and usually resolves on its own over time.
4. A 36-year-old male patient in the outpatient clinic is diagnosed with acute hepatitis C (HCV) infection. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing.
- B. Administer the HCV vaccine and immune globulin.
- C. Teach the patient about ribavirin (Rebetol) treatment.
- D. Explain that the infection will resolve over a few months.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action by the nurse is to schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing. Genotyping of HCV is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment regimen and guiding therapy decisions. Most patients with acute HCV infection progress to the chronic stage, so it is incorrect to inform the patient that the infection will resolve in a few months. There is no vaccine or immune globulin available for HCV, and ribavirin (Rebetol) is typically used for chronic HCV infection. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize genotyping to assist in treatment planning.
5. A client with Multiple Sclerosis reports a constant, burning, tingling pain in the shoulders. The nurse anticipates that the physician will order which medication for this type of pain?
- A. alprazolam (Xanax)
- B. Corticosteroid injection
- C. gabapentin (Neurontin)
- D. hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Norco)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For neuropathic pain associated with conditions like Multiple Sclerosis, medications like gabapentin, an anticonvulsant, are commonly used. Gabapentin helps in managing nerve pain by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain and nervous system. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not primarily indicated for neuropathic pain. Corticosteroid injections are more suitable for inflammatory conditions like arthritis, not for neuropathic pain. Hydrocodone/acetaminophen is an opioid combination used for moderate to severe pain, but it is not the first-line choice for neuropathic pain.
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