NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. The nurse is planning discharge instructions for the mother of a child following orchiopexy, which was performed on an outpatient basis. Which is a priority in the plan of care?
- A. Wound care
- B. Pain control measures
- C. Measurement of intake
- D. Cold and heat applications
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Following orchiopexy, the priority in the plan of care for the child's mother is wound care. The most common complications associated with orchiopexy are bleeding and infection. Discharge instructions should focus on demonstrating wound cleansing and dressing, and teaching parents to recognize signs of infection like redness, warmth, swelling, or discharge. It is crucial to prevent movement of the testicles and avoid contamination of the suture line. While analgesics may be prescribed, pain control measures are not the priority among the options presented. Measurement of intake is not essential as the child is likely to resume normal eating habits. Cold and heat applications are not typical prescribed treatments for post-orchiopexy care.
2. Parents of a 6-month-old breastfed baby ask the nurse about increasing the baby's diet. Which of the following should be added first?
- A. Cereal
- B. Eggs
- C. Meat
- D. Juice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Cereal.' The guidelines of the American Academy of Pediatrics recommend introducing one new food at a time, starting with strained cereal. Cereal is often recommended as a first solid food for infants due to its soft texture and iron-fortified properties, which are important for the baby's development. Eggs and meat are common allergenic foods and are usually introduced later. Juice is not recommended for infants under 1 year old due to its high sugar content and lack of nutritional value compared to whole fruits.
3. Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis?
- A. A congenital condition leading to renal dysfunction.
- B. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days.
- C. Viral infection of the glomeruli.
- D. Nephrotic syndrome.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly caused by the immune response to a prior upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus. Glomerular inflammation occurs about 10-14 days after the infection, resulting in scant, dark urine and retention of body fluid. Periorbital edema and hypertension are common signs at diagnosis.
4. The nurse is reviewing the characteristics of culture. Which statement is correct regarding the development of one's culture?
- A. Learned through language acquisition and socialization.
- B. Genetically determined on the basis of racial background.
- C. A nonspecific phenomenon and is adaptive but unnecessary.
- D. Biologically determined on the basis of physical characteristics.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Culture is a complex phenomenon that includes attitudes, beliefs, self-definitions, norms, roles, and values learned from birth through the processes of language acquisition and socialization. It is not biologically or genetically determined, but rather acquired through social interactions. The correct answer, 'Learned through language acquisition and socialization,' aligns with the understanding that culture is a learned behavior. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because culture is not genetically determined, nonspecific, or biologically based on physical characteristics. Understanding that culture is acquired through language and socialization is essential for healthcare providers to provide culturally competent care.
5. Which entry in the medical record best meets the requirement for problem-oriented charting?
- A. "A: Pacing and muttering to self. P: Sensory perceptual alteration, related to internal auditory stimulation. I: Given fluphenazine (Prolixin) 2.5 mg at 0900, and went to room to lie down. E: Calmer by 0930. Returned to lounge to watch TV."?
- B. "S: States, 'I feel like I'm ready to blow up.' O: Pacing hall, mumbling to self. A: Auditory hallucinations. P: Offer haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg . I: (Haldol) 2 mg at 0900. E: Returned to lounge at 0930 and quietly watched TV."?
- C. "Agitated behavior. D: Patient muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. A: Given haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg and went to room to lie down. E: Patient calmer. Returned to lounge to watch TV."?
- D. "Pacing hall and muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg administered at 0900 with calming effect in 30 minutes. Stated, 'I'm no longer bothered by the voices.'"?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Problem-oriented documentation uses the first letter of key words to organize data: S for subjective data, O for objective data, A for assessment, P for plan, I for intervention, and E for evaluation. The correct answer demonstrates problem-oriented charting by following this structure. Choice A, C, and D do not follow the problem-oriented charting format and instead offer examples of different documentation styles such as PIE charting, focus documentation, and narrative documentation, respectively. Therefore, choice B is the best example of problem-oriented charting among the options provided.
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