Nursing Elites

1. What nursing action demonstrates the nurse understands the priority nursing diagnosis when caring for patients being treated with splints, casts, or traction?

• A. The nurse assesses extremity pulse, temperature, color, pain, and feeling every hour.
• B. The nurse orders meals with adequate protein and calcium for the patient.
• C. The nurse teaches the patient never to insert objects under a cast to scratch an itch.
• D. The nurse administers oral painkillers as ordered.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess extremity pulse, temperature, color, pain, and feeling every hour. This action aligns with the priority nursing diagnosis of Risk for Peripheral Neurovascular Dysfunction related to fractures. Monitoring these factors is crucial to detect any signs of compromised circulation or nerve function promptly. Option B is incorrect as it does not directly address the priority nursing diagnosis. Option C is important but does not directly relate to the neurovascular aspect. Option D, administering painkillers, is necessary but does not specifically address the priority nursing diagnosis of neurovascular dysfunction.

2. A child is diagnosed with a Greenstick Fracture. Which of the following most accurately describes the broken bone?

• A. compound fracture of the fibula
• B. a partial break in a long bone
• C. fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist
• D. Colles fracture of the tibia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Greenstick Fracture is commonly found in children due to their bones being more flexible. This type of fracture occurs when a bone bends and partially breaks, resembling what happens when a green stick from a tree is bent in half. Therefore, the most accurate description of a Greenstick Fracture is 'a partial break in a long bone.' Choice A, 'compound fracture of the fibula,' is incorrect as a Greenstick Fracture is not a compound fracture. Choice C, 'fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist,' is incorrect as it describes a different type of fracture. Choice D, 'Colles fracture of the tibia,' is incorrect as it refers to a specific type of fracture in a different bone.

3. The nurse provides preoperative instruction for a patient scheduled for a left pneumonectomy for lung cancer. Which information should the nurse include about the patient's postoperative care?

• A. Positioning on the right side
• B. Bed rest for the first 24 hours
• C. Frequent use of an incentive spirometer
• D. Chest tube placement with continuous drainage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, frequent deep breathing and coughing are essential to prevent atelectasis and promote gas exchange. Patients are typically positioned on the surgical side to aid in gas exchange. Early mobilization is crucial to reduce the risk of postoperative complications such as pneumonia and deep vein thrombosis. While chest tubes may or may not be placed in the surgical space, if used, they are clamped and only adjusted by the surgeon to manage serosanguineous fluid accumulation. Overfilling of the chest cavity can compromise remaining lung function and cardiovascular status. Chest x-rays are useful for monitoring fluid volume and space postoperatively. Therefore, the correct postoperative care instruction for the patient undergoing a left pneumonectomy is the frequent use of an incentive spirometer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as positioning on the right side, bed rest for the first 24 hours, and continuous chest tube drainage are not standard postoperative care practices for patients undergoing pneumonectomy.

4. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse assesses the patient for mental status changes. What is the rationale for this intervention?

• A. Decreased cardiac output can cause hypoxia to the brain
• B. Mental status changes may be a side effect of the patient's medication
• C. Mitral regurgitation is a complication associated with some neurological disorders
• D. The patient may be confused about his diagnosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output, assessing for mental status changes is crucial. Decreased cardiac output can lead to inadequate perfusion and oxygenation of vital organs, including the brain, resulting in hypoxia. This hypoxia can manifest as mental status changes such as confusion, restlessness, or lethargy. Therefore, monitoring mental status helps in identifying potential hypoxic states and guiding appropriate interventions. The other options are incorrect as they do not directly correlate decreased cardiac output with potential hypoxia-induced mental status changes.

5. When assessing a patient being treated for Parkinson's Disease with classic symptoms, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?

• A. Tremors
• B. Low Urine Output
• C. Exaggerated arm movements
• D. Risk for Falls

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with Parkinson's Disease, the nurse should expect to note tremors as one of the cardinal signs of the condition. The classic symptoms of Parkinson's Disease include tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia (slow movements), and postural instability. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Low urine output is not a typical assessment finding associated with Parkinson's Disease. Exaggerated arm movements are not characteristic of the usual motor symptoms seen in Parkinson's Disease. While patients with Parkinson's Disease are at an increased risk for falls due to balance and coordination issues, 'Risk for Falls' is not an assessment finding but rather a potential nursing diagnosis based on the assessment findings.

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