NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. What nursing action demonstrates the nurse understands the priority nursing diagnosis when caring for patients being treated with splints, casts, or traction?
- A. The nurse assesses extremity pulse, temperature, color, pain, and feeling every hour.
- B. The nurse orders meals with adequate protein and calcium for the patient.
- C. The nurse teaches the patient never to insert objects under a cast to scratch an itch.
- D. The nurse administers oral painkillers as ordered.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess extremity pulse, temperature, color, pain, and feeling every hour. This action aligns with the priority nursing diagnosis of Risk for Peripheral Neurovascular Dysfunction related to fractures. Monitoring these factors is crucial to detect any signs of compromised circulation or nerve function promptly. Option B is incorrect as it does not directly address the priority nursing diagnosis. Option C is important but does not directly relate to the neurovascular aspect. Option D, administering painkillers, is necessary but does not specifically address the priority nursing diagnosis of neurovascular dysfunction.
2. A child is diagnosed with a Greenstick Fracture. Which of the following most accurately describes the broken bone?
- A. compound fracture of the fibula
- B. a partial break in a long bone
- C. fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist
- D. Colles fracture of the tibia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A Greenstick Fracture is commonly found in children due to their bones being more flexible. This type of fracture occurs when a bone bends and partially breaks, resembling what happens when a green stick from a tree is bent in half. Therefore, the most accurate description of a Greenstick Fracture is 'a partial break in a long bone.' Choice A, 'compound fracture of the fibula,' is incorrect as a Greenstick Fracture is not a compound fracture. Choice C, 'fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist,' is incorrect as it describes a different type of fracture. Choice D, 'Colles fracture of the tibia,' is incorrect as it refers to a specific type of fracture in a different bone.
3. Which assessment finding is of most concern for a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Abdominal tenderness
- C. Left upper quadrant pain
- D. Palpable abdominal mass
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is a palpable abdominal mass. In a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis, a palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which requires rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common symptoms in acute pancreatitis but do not necessarily indicate an immediate need for surgical intervention. Therefore, the presence of a palpable abdominal mass is the most concerning finding in this scenario.
4. When taking the blood pressure (BP) on the right arm of a patient with severe acute pancreatitis, the nurse notices carpal spasms of the patient's right hand. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Ask the patient about any arm pain.
- B. Retake the patient's blood pressure.
- C. Check the calcium level in the chart.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse observed carpal spasms in the patient's right hand, indicating a positive Trousseau's sign, which is associated with hypocalcemia. Patients with acute pancreatitis are at risk for hypocalcemia, hence the nurse should promptly check the calcium level in the chart to assess the patient's condition. Notifying the healthcare provider comes after confirming the calcium level. There is no indication to ask about arm pain or to retake the blood pressure, as the primary concern is addressing the potential hypocalcemia.
5. A patient's chart indicates a history of ketoacidosis. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?
- A. Vomiting
- B. Extreme Thirst
- C. Weight gain
- D. Acetone breath smell
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute ketoacidosis, a patient typically experiences rapid weight loss due to the body burning fat and muscle for energy in the absence of sufficient insulin. Therefore, weight gain would not be expected. Vomiting may occur due to the metabolic disturbances associated with ketoacidosis. Extreme thirst is a common symptom as the body tries to compensate for dehydration. Acetone breath smell is a classic sign of ketoacidosis as acetone is one of the ketones produced during this condition.
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