Nursing Elites

1. A patient born in 1955 had hepatitis A infection 1 year ago. According to Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines, which action should the nurse include in care when the patient is seen for a routine annual physical exam?

• A. Start the hepatitis B immunization series.
• B. Teach the patient about hepatitis A immune globulin.
• C. Ask whether the patient has been screened for hepatitis C.
• D. Test for anti-hepatitis-A virus immune globulin M (anti-HAV-IgM).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include in care when the patient is seen for a routine annual physical exam, according to CDC guidelines, is to ask whether the patient has been screened for hepatitis C. CDC guidelines recommend screening patients born between 1945 and 1965 for hepatitis C due to the high prevalence of undiagnosed cases in this age group. Starting the hepatitis B immunization series is not necessary as the patient already had hepatitis A infection. Teaching the patient about hepatitis A immune globulin is not indicated in this scenario. Testing for anti-hepatitis-A virus immune globulin M (anti-HAV-IgM) is not needed as the patient has already had hepatitis A.

2. Is it true that Hepatitis C virus (HCV) can be spread through hugging, sneezing, coughing, sharing eating utensils, and other forms of casual contact?

• A. True
• B. False
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: False. HCV is not spread through casual contact such as hugging, sneezing, or sharing eating utensils. The correct modes of transmission for HCV include direct contact with human blood through blood transfusions, improperly sterilized needles and syringes, needle sharing, or occasionally through sexual contact. Therefore, the statement is false, making 'False' the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the mode of transmission of HCV.

3. Which of these statements best describes the characteristics of an effective reward feedback system?

• A. Specific feedback is given as close to the event as possible
• B. Staff is given feedback in equal amounts over time
• C. Positive statements precede negative statements
• D. Performance goals should be higher than what is attainable

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that specific feedback should be given as close to the event as possible in an effective reward feedback system. This is important because feedback is most useful when provided immediately. Giving feedback promptly reinforces positive behavior and helps in modifying problem behaviors. Providing feedback close to the event helps in ensuring that standards are clearly understood and can be met. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because staff should not be given feedback in equal amounts over time, positive statements do not necessarily have to precede negative statements, and setting performance goals higher than what is attainable can lead to demotivation and decreased performance.

4. You have noticed that the last several patients you have cared for have had questionable blood pressure readings from their arterial lines. When checked against cuff pressures, a discrepancy has been noted, and further investigation has revealed faulty transducers. This is not the first product issue with this company. What positive step could you take to help resolve this situation?

• A. Use the old stock from a previous company
• B. Verify the cuff pressures every hour to ensure accuracy
• C. Notify the risk manager
• D. Form a peer workgroup to evaluate new products

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Forming a peer workgroup to evaluate new products would be an excellent opportunity for collaboration among peers, management, and the purchasing department. When clinicians are engaged to work toward solutions that address patient care issues, they experience more empowerment and control over their work environments. Choice A is incorrect because using old stock from a previous company does not address the root cause of the faulty transducers from the current company. Choice B is incorrect as verifying cuff pressures every hour does not directly address the issue of faulty transducers. Choice C is less effective than forming a peer workgroup as it involves only notifying the risk manager without involving a collaborative effort to resolve the product issue.

5. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• C. Biot's respirations
• D. Cluster breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is exhibiting Kussmaul respirations, characterized by rapid, deep, and regular breathing. This type of respiratory pattern is commonly seen in metabolic acidosis, such as in diabetic ketoacidosis. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation, leading to the elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. Choice B, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, is characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea and is not typically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, Biot's respirations, involve irregular breathing patterns with periods of apnea and are not reflective of the described breathing pattern. Cluster breathing, as mentioned in Choice D, is not a recognized term in respiratory patterns and does not describe the breathing pattern observed in Mr. N.

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