a patient born in 1955 had hepatitis a infection 1 year ago according to centers for disease control and prevention cdc guidelines which action shoul
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. A patient born in 1955 had hepatitis A infection 1 year ago. According to Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines, which action should the nurse include in care when the patient is seen for a routine annual physical exam?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include in care when the patient is seen for a routine annual physical exam, according to CDC guidelines, is to ask whether the patient has been screened for hepatitis C. CDC guidelines recommend screening patients born between 1945 and 1965 for hepatitis C due to the high prevalence of undiagnosed cases in this age group. Starting the hepatitis B immunization series is not necessary as the patient already had hepatitis A infection. Teaching the patient about hepatitis A immune globulin is not indicated in this scenario. Testing for anti-hepatitis-A virus immune globulin M (anti-HAV-IgM) is not needed as the patient has already had hepatitis A.

2. How can the dangers associated with wandering in Alzheimer's disease patients be prevented?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Bed alarms, chair alarms, and door alarms are all effective measures to prevent the dangers associated with wandering in Alzheimer's disease patients. These alarms can alert caregivers when a patient tries to leave a designated area, helping to keep them safe. It is crucial to respond promptly to these alarms to ensure the patient's safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as each type of alarm plays a vital role in a comprehensive wandering prevention strategy.

3. A 58-year-old client is being tested for rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician orders an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Which of the following results is most likely to be associated with arthritis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures levels of inflammation in the body. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis due to the presence of inflammation. In women over 50 years old, a normal ESR is typically below 30 mm/hr. Therefore, a result of 40 mm/hr is more indicative of arthritis in a 58-year-old individual. Choices A, B, and C are below the normal ESR range for a woman of this age and would not be as strongly associated with arthritis.

4. The healthcare professional needs to validate which of the following statements pertaining to an assigned client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Validation is the process of confirming that data are actual and factual. Data that can be measured can be accepted as factual, as in options 1, 3, and 4. The weight, blood pressure, and physical appearance of a lesion can be objectively verified. However, option C, the client reporting an infected toe, requires the nurse to directly assess the client's toe to confirm the statement. This choice involves subjective data that needs to be validated through direct observation, making it the correct answer. Options A, B, and D provide data that can be measured objectively and verified without the need for further assessment.

5. A patient is being seen in the crisis unit reporting that poison letters are coming in the mail. The patient has no history of psychiatric illness. Which group of the following medications would the patient most likely be started on?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, where a patient without a history of psychiatric illness is experiencing psychotic symptoms like believing in poison letters, the most suitable medication group to start the patient on would be atypical antipsychotics. Aripiprazole (Abilify) belongs to this group and is preferred due to its efficacy with fewer side effects compared to conventional antipsychotics. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta) is also an atypical antipsychotic but is usually indicated after stabilizing the patient with oral medications. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) is a conventional antipsychotic, which is less favored due to its side effect profile. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an antidepressant and is not the first-line treatment for psychotic symptoms.

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