NCLEX-RN
Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. At the beginning of the shift, a nurse receives report for her daily assignment. Which of the following situations should the nurse give first priority?
- A. A diabetic client with a blood glucose level of 195 mg/dL
- B. A family member of an elderly client who has questions
- C. A client with COPD with an oxygen saturation of 84%
- D. A client who requires assistance to use the bathroom
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When prioritizing the needs of clients, the nurse must begin with the unstable client or manage conditions that affect airway, breathing, or circulation first. The client with COPD has a condition that affects breathing and is exhibiting decreased oxygen saturation levels; therefore, this client should be the first priority. Option A, the diabetic client with a blood glucose level of 195 mg/dL, does not present an immediate threat to airway, breathing, or circulation. Option B, addressing questions from a family member, is important but can be addressed after addressing critical patient needs. Option D, assisting a client to use the bathroom, is a routine task that can be prioritized after addressing urgent medical needs.
2. After a lengthy explanation of a medical procedure, the patient asks many questions. The physician answers all of the questions to the best of their ability. The patient then gives consent for treatment. The costly equipment and supplies are put into place, and the patient is prepared. Two minutes before the procedure is to start, the patient begins panicking and changes their mind. Which of the following situations would be the best way to avoid litigation?
- A. Document that the patient originally gave consent and proceed if the benefits of the procedure outweigh the patient's wishes.
- B. Have the patient sign a form stating that they are refusing consent. If they refuse to sign, do not proceed with the procedure.
- C. Repeat the explanation of the procedure until the patient understands that having the procedure done is the best form of treatment. Do not proceed with the procedure.
- D. Do not proceed. Document the patient's refusal, have the patient sign a refusal to consent to treatment. If the patient refuses to sign the form, have a witness available to sign.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the best course of action to avoid litigation is to respect the patient's right to refuse treatment, especially when changing their mind before the procedure starts. By not proceeding with the treatment, documenting the patient's refusal, and having the patient sign a refusal to consent form, you are following proper ethical and legal procedures. If the patient refuses to sign the form, having a witness available to sign further strengthens the documentation of the patient's decision. This approach ensures that the patient's autonomy and right to make informed decisions about their healthcare are respected. Choices A, B, and C do not prioritize the patient's right to refuse treatment and could potentially lead to legal issues if treatment is carried out against the patient's wishes.
3. Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?
- A. Air embolism.
- B. Cerebral hemorrhage.
- C. Expansion of the clot.
- D. Resolution of the clot.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy in stroke treatment. Thrombolytic therapy aims to dissolve clots, but it increases the risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage. This risk is especially high when the therapy is administered quickly after a stroke, sometimes before confirming the type of stroke. Air embolism (Choice A) is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Expansion of the clot (Choice C) and resolution of the clot (Choice D) are not expected outcomes of thrombolytic therapy; the therapy is specifically used to dissolve clots, not to expand or resolve them.
4. How do technological advances relate to HIPAA?
- A. Technology can expose us to HIPAA violations.
- B. Computers facilitate information sharing.
- C. Computer screens should be visible only to authorized personnel.
- D. Technology enhances HIPAA confidentiality.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Technology can expose us to HIPAA violations. For instance, leaving a computer screen unattended and visible to unauthorized individuals can result in breaches of patient confidentiality, leading to HIPAA violations. While computers can indeed aid in sharing information, this is not directly related to HIPAA compliance. Ensuring that computer screens are only visible to authorized personnel is a good practice, but it does not address the broader risks and challenges posed by technological advancements in maintaining HIPAA compliance. Therefore, the correct answer is that technology can expose us to HIPAA violations.
5. What is the purpose of performing quality control?
- A. Create a paper trail to show that the laboratory is compliant with OSHA standards for quality control.
- B. Improve the odds that the results reported for any given test are as accurate and reliable as possible.
- C. Be required by law to be part of a quality assurance program.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of performing quality control is to enhance the accuracy and reliability of test results. Quality controls are crucial for ensuring the reliability of each analyte tested. While quality control is not mandated by specific laws, accrediting bodies often require it to maintain accreditation. Creating a paper trail and legal requirements are not the primary objectives of quality control, making choices A and C incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is to improve the accuracy and reliability of reported test results.
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