NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. A patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving nifedipine (Procardia). Which assessment would best indicate to the nurse that the patient's condition is improving?
- A. Blood pressure (BP) is less than 140/90 mm Hg.
- B. Patient reports decreased exertional dyspnea
- C. Heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/minute
- D. Patient's chest x-ray indicates clear lung fields
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is for the patient to report decreased exertional dyspnea. In idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH), exertional dyspnea is a significant symptom indicating disease severity. Improvement in this symptom suggests that the medication, nifedipine, is effective in managing the condition. While nifedipine can affect blood pressure (choice A) and heart rate (choice C), these parameters are not specific indicators for monitoring IPAH improvement. Choice D, clear lung fields on the chest x-ray, does not directly correlate with the effectiveness of therapy for IPAH. Therefore, the most relevant assessment to monitor improvement in a patient with IPAH receiving nifedipine is a decrease in exertional dyspnea.
2. A patient who has just been admitted with community-acquired pneumococcal pneumonia has a temperature of 101.6°F with a frequent cough and is complaining of severe pleuritic chest pain. Which prescribed medication should the nurse give first?
- A. Codeine
- B. Guaifenesin (Robitussin)
- C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- D. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn). Early initiation of antibiotic therapy is crucial in cases of community-acquired pneumococcal pneumonia to reduce mortality. While providing symptomatic relief with medications like Codeine for cough, Guaifenesin for mucus clearance, and Acetaminophen for fever and pain is important, the priority should be to start antibiotic therapy to target the underlying infection. Piperacillin/tazobactam is an appropriate choice for treating severe community-acquired pneumonia caused by pneumococcal organisms.
3. Which finding indicates to the nurse that a patient's transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) placed 3 months ago has been effective?
- A. Increased serum albumin level
- B. Decreased indirect bilirubin level
- C. Improved alertness and orientation
- D. Fewer episodes of bleeding varices
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fewer episodes of bleeding varices.' A transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) is used to reduce pressure in the portal venous system, thus decreasing the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This outcome would indicate the effectiveness of the TIPS procedure. The other choices are incorrect because: Increased serum albumin level and decreased indirect bilirubin level are not direct indicators of TIPS effectiveness. Improved alertness and orientation could be influenced by various factors and may not directly correlate with the effectiveness of the TIPS procedure. Additionally, TIPS can actually increase the risk of hepatic encephalopathy, which contradicts the choice of improved alertness and orientation.
4. The nurse provides preoperative instruction for a patient scheduled for a left pneumonectomy for lung cancer. Which information should the nurse include about the patient's postoperative care?
- A. Positioning on the right side
- B. Bed rest for the first 24 hours
- C. Frequent use of an incentive spirometer
- D. Chest tube placement with continuous drainage
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, frequent deep breathing and coughing are essential to prevent atelectasis and promote gas exchange. Patients are typically positioned on the surgical side to aid in gas exchange. Early mobilization is crucial to reduce the risk of postoperative complications such as pneumonia and deep vein thrombosis. While chest tubes may or may not be placed in the surgical space, if used, they are clamped and only adjusted by the surgeon to manage serosanguineous fluid accumulation. Overfilling of the chest cavity can compromise remaining lung function and cardiovascular status. Chest x-rays are useful for monitoring fluid volume and space postoperatively. Therefore, the correct postoperative care instruction for the patient undergoing a left pneumonectomy is the frequent use of an incentive spirometer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as positioning on the right side, bed rest for the first 24 hours, and continuous chest tube drainage are not standard postoperative care practices for patients undergoing pneumonectomy.
5. The healthcare professional is taking the health history of a patient being treated for sickle cell disease. After being told the patient has severe generalized pain, the healthcare professional expects to note which assessment finding?
- A. Severe and persistent diarrhea
- B. Intense pain in the toe
- C. Yellow-tinged sclera
- D. Headache
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In patients with sickle cell disease, severe generalized pain can be associated with vaso-occlusive crises, but yellow-tinged sclera is a common clinical finding related to sickle cell disease. This yellowing of the sclera, known as jaundice, occurs due to the release of bilirubin from damaged or destroyed red blood cells. Severe and persistent diarrhea is not a typical assessment finding in sickle cell disease. Intense pain in the toe may be associated with vaso-occlusive crisis but is not the expected assessment finding in this scenario. Headache is a common symptom in many conditions but is not specifically related to the assessment finding expected in a patient with sickle cell disease presenting with severe generalized pain.
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