Nursing Elites

1. A patient with stage I nonsmall cell lung cancer expresses a preference for chemotherapy over surgery. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Are you concerned about the potential pain from surgery?
• B. Have you had negative experiences with previous surgeries?
• C. Surgery is the recommended treatment for stage I lung cancer.
• D. Tell me about your understanding of the different available treatments.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse in this situation is to gather more information about the patient's concerns and preferences. By asking the patient to share their understanding of the available treatments, the nurse encourages open communication and gains insight into the patient's knowledge and preferences. Option A focuses solely on pain, which may not be the patient's primary concern. Option B assumes negative experiences without exploring the patient's current thoughts. Option C, stating that surgery is the recommended treatment, dismisses the patient's preference and does not address their concerns. Chemotherapy is not the primary treatment for nonsmall cell lung cancer; it may be used for nonresectable tumors or as adjuvant therapy to surgery, making it crucial for the nurse to explore the patient's treatment preferences and understanding.

2. A 1-year-old child is diagnosed with intussusception, and the mother of the child asks the student nurse to describe the disorder. Which statement by the student nurse indicates correct understanding of this disorder?

• A. It is an acute bowel obstruction.
• B. It is a condition that causes an acute inflammatory process in the bowel.
• C. It is a condition in which a distal segment of the bowel prolapses into a proximal segment of the bowel.
• D. It is a condition in which a proximal segment of the bowel prolapses into a distal segment of the bowel.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intussusception is a condition in which a proximal segment of the bowel telescopes or prolapses into a distal segment of the bowel. This leads to bowel obstruction and potential ischemia. It is not an acute bowel obstruction, as the obstruction is caused by the telescoping of bowel segments rather than a blockage in the bowel lumen. Intussusception is not primarily an inflammatory process; instead, it is a mechanical issue involving bowel invagination. Choice A is incorrect as it does not accurately describe the pathophysiology of intussusception. Choice C is incorrect because it presents the opposite scenario of what happens in intussusception.

3. A child is suspected of suffering from intussusception. The nurse should be alert to which clinical manifestation of this condition?

• A. Tender, distended abdomen
• B. Presence of fecal incontinence
• C. Incomplete development of the anus
• D. Infrequent and difficult passage of dry stools

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intussusception is an invagination of a section of the intestine into the distal bowel, and it is the most common cause of bowel obstruction in children aged 3 months to 6 years. A tender, distended abdomen is a typical clinical manifestation of intussusception. The presence of fecal incontinence is not a characteristic presentation of intussusception; it describes encopresis, which generally affects preschool and school-aged children but is not specific to intussusception. Incomplete development of the anus describes imperforate anus, a disorder diagnosed in the neonatal period, not intussusception. The infrequent and difficult passage of dry stools is characteristic of constipation, a common issue in children that can occur at any age, although it often peaks at 2 to 3 years old.

4. A female patient is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status pending a diagnostic test. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of metformin?

• A. Diarrhea and Vomiting
• B. Dizziness and Drowsiness
• C. Metallic taste
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypoglycemia.' When a patient is on NPO status (nothing by mouth) and prescribed metformin, there is an increased risk of hypoglycemia due to the absence of oral intake. Metformin, as an anti-glycemic drug, can lower blood sugar levels, and without food intake, the risk of hypoglycemia is higher. Diarrhea and vomiting are common gastrointestinal side effects of metformin but are not the main concern in this scenario. Dizziness and drowsiness are potential side effects of some medications but are not typically associated with metformin. Metallic taste is a known side effect of metformin but is not the primary concern in this situation where hypoglycemia is more critical to monitor due to the patient's NPO status.

5. Which patient is at risk for developing oral candidiasis, a type of stomatitis?

• A. A 77-year-old woman in a long-term care facility taking an antibiotic
• B. A 35-year-old man who has had HIV for 6 years
• C. A 40-year-old man who is undergoing chemotherapy
• D. An 80-year-old woman with dentures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a 77-year-old woman in a long-term care facility taking an antibiotic. This patient has multiple risk factors for developing oral candidiasis, including older age, being in a long-term care facility, and taking antibiotics. Candidiasis can be caused by long-term antibiotic therapy, immunosuppressive therapy (such as chemotherapy), older age, living in a long-term care facility, diabetes, having dentures, and poor oral hygiene. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be at high risk for oral candidiasis compared to the correct answer.

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