Nursing Elites

1. A client who has undergone radiation therapy presents with itching, redness, burning pain, and skin sloughing on the chest and abdomen. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client?

• A. Apply ointment to the skin to avoid moisture
• B. Wash the area gently with water and pat dry
• C. Use a mild antiseptic soap to wash the area and pat dry
• D. Apply talcum powder to keep the skin dry

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client experiencing skin symptoms like redness, itching, burning pain, and sloughing after radiation therapy, it is crucial to maintain proper skin care. Applying ointments, lotions, or powders can worsen the condition by trapping moisture and leading to further skin irritation. The most appropriate intervention is to wash the affected area gently with water to cleanse it without further irritating the skin. Using mild antiseptic soap or talcum powder can also be harsh on the compromised skin. Patting the skin dry helps prevent friction and trauma to the affected area, promoting healing and comfort.

2. The healthcare provider is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the troponin T value is at 5.3 ng/mL. Which of these interventions, if not already completed, would take priority over the others?

• A. Place the patient in a 90-degree position
• B. Assess whether the patient is taking diuretics
• C. Obtain and attach defibrillator leads
• D. Assess the patient's last ejection fraction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the elevated Troponin T level indicates cardiac damage, possibly due to a myocardial infarction. A Troponin T value of 5.3 ng/mL is significantly elevated (normal levels are below 0.2 ng/mL), suggesting acute cardiac injury. Given the setting of an Emergency Room and the critical nature of the situation, the priority intervention should be to obtain and attach defibrillator leads. Elevated Troponin T levels can indicate a higher risk of arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, which can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. Defibrillator leads are essential for monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm and readiness for immediate defibrillation if necessary. Placing the patient in a 90-degree position (Choice A) or assessing diuretic use (Choice B) are not immediate priorities in this critical situation. Additionally, assessing the patient's last ejection fraction (Choice D) is important but not as urgent as preparing for potential life-threatening arrhythmias requiring defibrillation.

3. A man has been taking lisinopril for CHF. The patient is seen in the emergency room for persistent diarrhea. The nurse is concerned about which side effect of lisinopril?

• A. Vertigo
• B. Hypotension
• C. Palpitations
• D. Nagging, dry cough

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor commonly used for CHF, can cause hypotension as a side effect. Persistent diarrhea can lead to dehydration, increasing the risk of hypotension in this patient. Vertigo (choice A) is not a typical side effect of lisinopril. Palpitations (choice C) are not directly associated with lisinopril use. A nagging, dry cough (choice D) is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril, but in this case, the patient's presentation with persistent diarrhea would make hypotension a more immediate concern.

4. A patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving nifedipine (Procardia). Which assessment would best indicate to the nurse that the patient's condition is improving?

• A. Blood pressure (BP) is less than 140/90 mm Hg.
• B. Patient reports decreased exertional dyspnea
• C. Heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/minute
• D. Patient's chest x-ray indicates clear lung fields

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is for the patient to report decreased exertional dyspnea. In idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH), exertional dyspnea is a significant symptom indicating disease severity. Improvement in this symptom suggests that the medication, nifedipine, is effective in managing the condition. While nifedipine can affect blood pressure (choice A) and heart rate (choice C), these parameters are not specific indicators for monitoring IPAH improvement. Choice D, clear lung fields on the chest x-ray, does not directly correlate with the effectiveness of therapy for IPAH. Therefore, the most relevant assessment to monitor improvement in a patient with IPAH receiving nifedipine is a decrease in exertional dyspnea.

5. Which client is at highest risk for developing a pressure ulcer?

• A. 23 year-old in traction for fractured femur
• B. 72 year-old with peripheral vascular disease, who is unable to walk without assistance
• C. 75 year-old with left sided paresthesia and is incontinent of urine and stool
• D. 30 year-old who is comatose following a ruptured aneurysm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Risk factors for pressure ulcers include: immobility, absence of sensation, decreased LOC, poor nutrition and hydration, skin moisture, incontinence, increased age, decreased immune response. This client has the greatest number of risk factors.

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