Nursing Elites

1. A 36-year-old male patient in the outpatient clinic is diagnosed with acute hepatitis C (HCV) infection. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. Schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing.
• B. Administer the HCV vaccine and immune globulin.
• C. Teach the patient about ribavirin (Rebetol) treatment.
• D. Explain that the infection will resolve over a few months.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action by the nurse is to schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing. Genotyping of HCV is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment regimen and guiding therapy decisions. Most patients with acute HCV infection progress to the chronic stage, so it is incorrect to inform the patient that the infection will resolve in a few months. There is no vaccine or immune globulin available for HCV, and ribavirin (Rebetol) is typically used for chronic HCV infection. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize genotyping to assist in treatment planning.

2. The nurse is teaching parents about the treatment plan for a 2-week-old infant with Tetralogy of Fallot. While awaiting future surgery, the nurse instructs the parents to immediately report

• A. Loss of consciousness
• B. Feeding problems
• C. Poor weight gain
• D. Fatigue with crying

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Loss of consciousness.' While parents should report any concerning observations, they need to call the healthcare provider immediately if the infant experiences a loss of consciousness. This change in alertness may indicate anoxia, which can be life-threatening. Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart defect characterized by four main features: pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. Surgery for Tetralogy of Fallot may be delayed or done in stages. Reporting loss of consciousness is crucial due to the potential seriousness of the condition. Feeding problems, poor weight gain, and fatigue with crying are important issues but do not require immediate reporting like loss of consciousness does.

3. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?

• A. Slow, deep respirations
• B. Stridor
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Air hunger

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with pulmonary edema following a myocardial infarction, the nurse should expect symptoms such as air hunger, anxiety, and agitation. Air hunger refers to the feeling of needing to breathe more deeply or more often. Other symptoms of pulmonary edema can include coughing up blood or bloody froth, orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying down), and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (sudden awakening with shortness of breath). Slow, deep respirations (Choice A) are not typical in pulmonary edema; these patients often exhibit rapid, shallow breathing due to the difficulty in oxygen exchange. Stridor (Choice B) is a high-pitched breathing sound often associated with upper airway obstruction, not typically seen in pulmonary edema. Bradycardia (Choice C), a slow heart rate, is not a characteristic symptom of pulmonary edema, which is more likely to be associated with tachycardia due to the body's compensatory response to hypoxia and increased workload on the heart.

4. A patient with acute dyspnea is scheduled for a spiral computed tomography (CT) scan. Which information obtained by the nurse is a priority to communicate to the health care provider before the CT?

• A. Allergy to shellfish
• B. Apical pulse of 104
• C. Respiratory rate of 30
• D. Oxygen saturation of 90%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Because iodine-based contrast media is used during a spiral CT, the patient may need to have the CT scan without contrast or be premedicated before injection of the contrast media. The increased pulse, low oxygen saturation, and tachypnea all indicate a need for further assessment or intervention but do not indicate a need to modify the CT procedure.

5. A child is diagnosed with Hirschsprung's disease. The nurse is teaching the parents about the cause of the disease. Which statement, if made by the parent, supports that teaching was successful?

• A. The absence of special cells in the rectum caused the disease.
• B. Incomplete digestion of the protein part of wheat, barley, rye, and oats is not the cause of the disease.
• C. The disease does not occur due to increased bowel motility leading to spasm and pain.
• D. The disease is not caused by the inability to tolerate sugar found in dairy products.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease, also known as congenital aganglionosis or megacolon, is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the rectum and, sometimes, extending into the colon. Choice A correctly explains the cause of Hirschsprung's disease. Choice B is incorrect as it describes celiac disease, which is related to gluten intolerance. Choice C is inaccurate as it describes symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome, not the cause of Hirschsprung's disease. Choice D is wrong as it pertains to lactose intolerance, not Hirschsprung's disease.

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