NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. A 36-year-old male patient in the outpatient clinic is diagnosed with acute hepatitis C (HCV) infection. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing.
- B. Administer the HCV vaccine and immune globulin.
- C. Teach the patient about ribavirin (Rebetol) treatment.
- D. Explain that the infection will resolve over a few months.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action by the nurse is to schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing. Genotyping of HCV is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment regimen and guiding therapy decisions. Most patients with acute HCV infection progress to the chronic stage, so it is incorrect to inform the patient that the infection will resolve in a few months. There is no vaccine or immune globulin available for HCV, and ribavirin (Rebetol) is typically used for chronic HCV infection. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize genotyping to assist in treatment planning.
2. The parents of a newborn with a cleft lip are concerned and ask the nurse when the lip will be repaired. With which statement should the nurse respond?
- A. Cleft lip cannot be repaired.
- B. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed by 6 months of age.
- C. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed during the first months of life.
- D. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cleft-lip repair is typically performed during the first few months of life to address functional and cosmetic concerns at an early stage. Early repair can enhance bonding and facilitate feeding. While revisions may be necessary later on, addressing the cleft lip early is essential. Option A is incorrect as cleft lip repair is a common surgical procedure. Option B is incorrect as repair is typically done earlier than 6 months for better outcomes. Option D is incorrect as the usual timing for repair is within the first months of life, not between 6 months and 2 years.
3. A patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was hospitalized for increasing shortness of breath and chronic hypoxemia (SaO2 levels of 89% to 90%). In planning for discharge, which action by the nurse will be most effective in improving compliance with discharge teaching?
- A. Start giving the patient discharge teaching on the day of discharge
- B. Have the patient repeat the instructions immediately after teaching
- C. Accomplish the patient teaching just before the scheduled discharge
- D. Arrange for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hypoxemia interferes with the patient's ability to learn and retain information, so having the patient's caregiver present will increase the likelihood that discharge instructions will be followed. Having the patient repeat the instructions will indicate that the information is understood at the time, but it does not guarantee retention of the information. Giving discharge instructions just before discharge is not ideal as the patient is likely to be distracted and anxious at that time. Teaching the patient about discharge on the day of admission is not recommended because the patient may be more hypoxemic and anxious than usual, making it difficult for them to absorb and retain the information effectively. Therefore, arranging for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching session is the best option to ensure proper compliance and understanding of the discharge instructions.
4. While receiving normal saline infusions to treat a GI bleed, the nurse notes that the patient's lower legs have become edematous and auscultates crackles in the lungs. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Stop the saline infusion immediately
- B. Notify the physician
- C. Elevate the patient's legs
- D. Continue the infusion, as these findings are normal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the saline infusion immediately. The patient is showing signs of fluid volume overload due to rapid fluid replacement, indicated by lower leg edema and lung crackles. Continuing the infusion could worsen the overload and potentially lead to complications. Notifying the physician is important but should come after stopping the infusion to address the immediate issue. Elevating the patient's legs may help with edema but is not the priority in this situation. Continuing the infusion when the patient is already showing signs of fluid overload is contraindicated and can be harmful.
5. An older patient is receiving standard multidrug therapy for tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should notify the health care provider if the patient exhibits which finding?
- A. Yellow-tinged skin
- B. Orange-colored sputum
- C. Thickening of the fingernails
- D. Difficulty hearing high-pitched voices
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Yellow-tinged skin.' Yellow-tinged skin is indicative of noninfectious hepatitis, a toxic effect of isoniazid (INH), rifampin, and pyrazinamide. If a patient on TB therapy develops hepatotoxicity, alternative medications will be necessary. Thickening of fingernails and difficulty hearing high-pitched voices are not typical side effects of the medications used in standard TB therapy. Presbycusis, age-related hearing loss, is common in older adults and not a cause for immediate concern. Orange-colored sputum is an expected side effect of rifampin and does not warrant immediate notification to the healthcare provider.
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