Nursing Elites

1. A child is diagnosed with a Greenstick Fracture. Which of the following most accurately describes the broken bone?

• A. compound fracture of the fibula
• B. a partial break in a long bone
• C. fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist
• D. Colles fracture of the tibia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Greenstick Fracture is commonly found in children due to their bones being more flexible. This type of fracture occurs when a bone bends and partially breaks, resembling what happens when a green stick from a tree is bent in half. Therefore, the most accurate description of a Greenstick Fracture is 'a partial break in a long bone.' Choice A, 'compound fracture of the fibula,' is incorrect as a Greenstick Fracture is not a compound fracture. Choice C, 'fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist,' is incorrect as it describes a different type of fracture. Choice D, 'Colles fracture of the tibia,' is incorrect as it refers to a specific type of fracture in a different bone.

2. The nursing care plan for a toddler diagnosed with Kawasaki Disease (mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome) should be based on the high risk for development of which problem?

• A. Chronic vessel plaque formation
• B. Pulmonary embolism
• C. Occlusions at the vessel bifurcations
• D. Coronary artery aneurysms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is chronic vessel plaque formation. Kawasaki Disease affects small and medium-sized blood vessels, leading to progressive inflammation and potential damage to the walls of medium-sized muscular arteries, which can result in coronary artery aneurysms. While other complications such as pulmonary embolism and occlusions at vessel bifurcations can occur in different conditions, for Kawasaki Disease, the primary concern is the development of chronic vessel plaque formation.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq potassium chloride in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?

• A. Narrowed QRS complex
• B. Shortened "PR"? interval
• C. Tall peaked "T"? waves
• D. Prominent "U"? waves

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A tall peaked T wave is a characteristic EKG pattern associated with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia refers to high levels of potassium in the blood, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Tall peaked T waves are a red flag for potential cardiac issues and can indicate the need to discontinue potassium infusions. The other choices, such as narrowed QRS complex, shortened "PR"? interval, and prominent "U"? waves, are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Therefore, recognizing tall peaked T waves is crucial for the nurse to take prompt action in managing the client's condition.

4. A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:

• A. Instruct the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination.
• B. Restrict the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination.
• C. Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination.
• D. Inform the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct preparation for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) involves administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination. This is crucial to ensure adequate bowel preparation, which in turn allows for better visualization of the bladder and ureters during the procedure. An IVP is an x-ray exam that utilizes contrast material to evaluate the kidneys, ureters, and bladder, aiding in the diagnosis of conditions like blood in the urine or pain in the side or lower back. Administering a laxative helps in achieving optimal imaging quality, which is essential for accurate diagnosis and subsequent treatment planning. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining a regular diet is not the standard preparation for an IVP. Choice B is incorrect as fluid intake is not typically restricted for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as an IVP involves multiple x-rays to assess the urinary system, not just one of the abdomen.

5. Which factors will the nurse consider when calculating the CURB-65 score for a patient with pneumonia? (Select one that does not apply)

• A. Age
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Oxygen saturation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Oxygen saturation.' When calculating the CURB-65 score for a patient with pneumonia, the factors considered include mental status (confusion), BUN (elevated), blood pressure (decreased), respiratory rate (increased), and age (65 and older). Oxygen saturation is not used in the CURB-65 scoring system. While blood pressure, respiratory rate, and age are factors that are used in the calculation of the CURB-65 score, oxygen saturation is not part of the scoring criteria. Therefore, oxygen saturation is the factor that does not apply when calculating the CURB-65 score.

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