NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. A child is diagnosed with a Greenstick Fracture. Which of the following most accurately describes the broken bone?
- A. compound fracture of the fibula
- B. a partial break in a long bone
- C. fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist
- D. Colles fracture of the tibia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A Greenstick Fracture is commonly found in children due to their bones being more flexible. This type of fracture occurs when a bone bends and partially breaks, resembling what happens when a green stick from a tree is bent in half. Therefore, the most accurate description of a Greenstick Fracture is 'a partial break in a long bone.' Choice A, 'compound fracture of the fibula,' is incorrect as a Greenstick Fracture is not a compound fracture. Choice C, 'fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist,' is incorrect as it describes a different type of fracture. Choice D, 'Colles fracture of the tibia,' is incorrect as it refers to a specific type of fracture in a different bone.
2. A patient with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy that is known to depress bone marrow. A CBC (complete blood count) reveals a platelet count of 25,000/microliter. Which of the following actions related specifically to the platelet count should be included in the nursing care plan?
- A. Monitor for fever every 4 hours.
- B. Require visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing.
- C. Consider transfusion of packed red blood cells.
- D. Check for signs of bleeding, including examination of urine and stool for blood.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A platelet count of 25,000/microliter indicates severe thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding. It is crucial to initiate bleeding precautions, including regularly checking for signs of bleeding such as examining urine and stool for blood. Monitoring for fever every 4 hours (Choice A) should be included for neutropenic precautions, not specifically related to platelet count. Requiring visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing (Choice B) is more relevant for patients with airborne precautions. Considering transfusion of packed red blood cells (Choice C) is not indicated for low platelet count but is more appropriate for managing anemia or low hemoglobin levels.
3. The nurse analyzes the results of a patient's arterial blood gases (ABGs). Which finding would require immediate action?
- A. The bicarbonate level (HCO3) is 31 mEq/L
- B. The arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) is 92%
- C. The partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCO2) is 31 mm Hg
- D. The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) is 59 mm Hg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: While all the values are abnormal, the low PaO2 level of 59 mm Hg indicates that the patient is at a critical point on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve. At this level, a small decrease in PaO2 can lead to a significant drop in oxygen saturation and compromise tissue oxygenation. Therefore, immediate intervention is necessary to improve the patient's oxygenation status. Choice A (HCO3 of 31 mEq/L) may indicate metabolic alkalosis or compensation for respiratory acidosis; however, it does not require immediate action in this scenario. Choice B (SaO2 of 92%) is slightly low but not critically low to require immediate action. Choice C (PaCO2 of 31 mm Hg) is within the normal range and does not indicate immediate danger to the patient.
4. When auscultating the patient's lungs during a shift assessment on a patient admitted in the early phase of heart failure, which finding would the nurse most likely hear?
- A. Continuous rumbling, snoring, or rattling sounds mainly on expiration
- B. Continuous high-pitched musical sounds on inspiration and expiration
- C. Discontinuous, high-pitched sounds of short duration heard on inspiration
- D. A series of long-duration, discontinuous, low-pitched sounds during inspiration
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the early phase of heart failure, fine crackles are likely to be heard upon auscultation of the lungs. Fine crackles are characterized as discontinuous, high-pitched sounds of short duration heard on inspiration. Rhonchi are continuous rumbling, snoring, or rattling sounds mainly on expiration, which are often associated with airway secretions. Coarse crackles are a series of long-duration, discontinuous, low-pitched sounds during inspiration, typically indicating fluid in the alveoli. Wheezes are continuous high-pitched musical sounds on inspiration and expiration, commonly heard in conditions like asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Therefore, the correct choice is C, as it describes the expected lung sounds in a patient with early heart failure.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is post-op day #3 after an abdominal hernia repair. After a bout of harsh coughing, the client states, 'it feels like something gave way.' The nurse assesses his abdomen and notes an evisceration from the surgical site. What is the next action of the nurse?
- A. Turn the client on his side
- B. Push the abdominal contents back inside the wound using sterile gloves
- C. Ask the client to take a breath and hold it
- D. Cover the intestine with sterile saline dressings
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A wound evisceration occurs when the edges of an abdominal wound separate, allowing the coils of the intestine to protrude outside of the body. The nurse should notify the physician at once if this occurs. While waiting for treatment, the nurse should cover the intestines with sterile gauze soaked in saline. Turning the client on his side or asking the client to take a breath and hold it are not appropriate actions in this situation. Pushing the abdominal contents back inside the wound using sterile gloves can lead to infection and is not within the nurse's scope of practice.
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