the primary health care provider of a woman who had a mastectomy has arranged for a mastectomy peer support visit what is the purpose of the referral
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX Psychosocial Questions

1. A woman who had a mastectomy is scheduled for a mastectomy peer support visit arranged by her primary health care provider. What is the purpose of the referral?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The purpose of a mastectomy peer support visit is to prevent social isolation. This visit helps the client maintain her social connections and learn about community resources. Teaching arm exercises and meeting physical needs are tasks for healthcare professionals, not the primary goal of a peer support visit. Viewing the surgical incision is also not the primary purpose of such a visit.

2. A client who is newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis is obviously upset and asks, 'Am I going to die?' Which response would the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response to the client's question regarding their prognosis is to acknowledge the variable nature of multiple sclerosis by stating that 'The prognosis varies, as most individuals have remissions and exacerbations.' This response provides realistic information while offering some hope. Choice A ('Most individuals with your disease live a normal life span.') gives false reassurance as repeated exacerbations may affect life span. Choice B ('Is your family here? I would like to explain your disease to all of you.') does not directly address the client's question and involves the family unnecessarily. Choice D ('Why don't you speak with your health care provider to get more details?') deflects the responsibility and does not address the client's immediate concerns about their prognosis.

3. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate when working with the family of a client who is being treated for substance abuse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When working with the family of a client undergoing substance abuse treatment, it is crucial to support not only the client but also their family. Providing referrals for community resources and support groups is an effective intervention as it helps the family access additional support and information to cope with the challenges related to the client's substance abuse. This empowers the family to enhance their understanding of the situation and develop effective coping strategies. Advocating for the client before the family (choice A) may lead to conflicts and hinder the therapeutic process, while taking the side of the family before the client (choice C) can jeopardize the client's progress and trust. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention in this scenario is to provide referrals for community resources and support groups to ensure holistic care for both the client and their family.

4. An older adult who recently began self-administration of insulin calls the nurse daily to review the steps that should be taken when giving an injection. The nurse has assessed the client's skills during two previous office visits and knows that the client is capable of giving the daily injection. Which response by the nurse is likely to be most helpful in encouraging the client to assume total responsibility for the daily injections?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse in this scenario is option C. By acknowledging and affirming the client's demonstrated ability to self-administer the injection correctly, the nurse is providing positive reinforcement. This positive reinforcement helps to build the client's confidence and encourages them to take total responsibility for their daily injections. Option A, while positive, does not specifically reinforce the client's behavior related to giving the injection. Option B focuses on the client's feelings of nervousness, which may not be helpful in promoting independence. Option D, by offering help without assessing the client's actual needs, reinforces dependence on the nurse rather than encouraging self-reliance.

5. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

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