NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A patient who has been diagnosed with vasospastic disorder (Raynaud's disease) complains of cold and stiffness in the fingers. Which of the following descriptions is most likely to fit the patient?
- A. An adolescent male
- B. An elderly woman
- C. A young woman
- D. An elderly man
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A young woman.' Raynaud's disease is most common in young women and is often associated with rheumatologic disorders like lupus and rheumatoid arthritis. This disorder involves vasospasm of the arteries, leading to reduced blood flow to the fingers and toes. Typically, Raynaud's affects the fingers, and in some cases, it can affect the toes. Only rarely does it involve other body parts such as the nose, ears, nipples, and lips. Choices B, C, and D are less likely as Raynaud's disease predominantly affects young women, although it can occur in other demographic groups as well.
2. A client is receiving education on cholesterol. Which of the following statements from the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I would like my HDL levels to be over 50.
- B. It is better for me to have high HDL levels and low LDL levels.
- C. It is better for me to have high LDL levels and low HDL levels.
- D. My goal is to get my total cholesterol below 200.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'It is better for me to have high LDL levels and low HDL levels.' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because high LDL levels contribute to atherosclerosis, while high HDL levels can protect against heart disease. The client should understand the importance of lowering LDL levels and increasing HDL levels to maintain good heart health. Choice A is correct as desiring HDL levels over 50 is a positive goal. Choice B is correct as it reflects the ideal scenario of high HDL and low LDL levels. Choice D is correct as a total cholesterol below 200 is a common goal for heart health. Therefore, Choice C is incorrect as it suggests an opposite and unhealthy relationship between LDL and HDL levels.
3. A 27-year-old writer is admitted for the second time accompanied by his wife. He is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive. Initially the nurse should plan this for a manic client:
- A. Set realistic limits to the client's behavior
- B. Repeat verbal instructions as often as needed
- C. Allow the client to express feelings to relieve tension
- D. Assign staff to be with the client at all times to help maintain control
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For a manic client who is hyperactive and may engage in injurious activities, setting realistic limits to the client's behavior is crucial to ensure safety. A quiet environment with firm and consistent limits helps in managing the client's behavior effectively. While repeating verbal instructions can be helpful due to the client's distractibility, it is not the priority compared to setting limits for safety concerns. Allowing the client to express feelings is important, but it should be done through non-destructive methods. Assigning staff to be with the client at all times is not realistic or feasible in the clinical setting and does not address the core issue of managing the client's behavior and ensuring safety.
4. The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:
- A. Excessive fetal weight
- B. Low blood sugar levels
- C. Depletion of subcutaneous fat
- D. Progressive placental insufficiency
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.
5. Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?
- A. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
- B. First-generation antipsychotic drugs
- C. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs
- D. Dopamine system stabilizers
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.
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