Nursing Elites

1. A client who is newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis is obviously upset and asks, 'Am I going to die?' Which response would the nurse make?

• A. Most individuals with your disease live a normal life span.
• B. Is your family here? I would like to explain your disease to all of you.
• C. The prognosis varies, as most individuals have remissions and exacerbations.
• D. Why don't you speak with your health care provider to get more details?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response to the client's question regarding their prognosis is to acknowledge the variable nature of multiple sclerosis by stating that 'The prognosis varies, as most individuals have remissions and exacerbations.' This response provides realistic information while offering some hope. Choice A ('Most individuals with your disease live a normal life span.') gives false reassurance as repeated exacerbations may affect life span. Choice B ('Is your family here? I would like to explain your disease to all of you.') does not directly address the client's question and involves the family unnecessarily. Choice D ('Why don't you speak with your health care provider to get more details?') deflects the responsibility and does not address the client's immediate concerns about their prognosis.

2. Which communication technique is a part of therapeutic communication?

• A. Asking for explanations
• B. Showing sympathy to the client
• C. Asking personal questions of the client
• D. Providing relevant information to the client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is providing relevant information to the client. In therapeutic communication, it is essential to provide clients with all pertinent information to help them understand their health status and what to expect. This empowers clients and promotes trust in the nurse-client relationship. Asking for explanations, showing sympathy, and asking personal questions are examples of nontherapeutic communication techniques. Asking personal questions can intrude on the client's privacy and may not be relevant to their care. Showing sympathy, while well-intentioned, may come across as pity rather than true empathy. Asking for explanations can sometimes put clients on the defensive rather than fostering a collaborative dialogue.

3. While explaining an illness to a 10-year-old, what should the nurse keep in mind about cognitive development at this age?

• A. They are able to make simple associations of ideas.
• B. They are able to think logically in organizing facts.
• C. Interpretation of events originates from their own perspective.
• D. Conclusions are based on previous experiences.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that 10-year-olds are able to think logically in organizing facts. At this age, children are in the concrete operational stage according to Piaget's theory of cognitive development. In this stage, they can understand and organize information logically and can manipulate objects mentally. Choice A is incorrect because simple associations of ideas are more characteristic of earlier developmental stages. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to egocentrism, which is more typical of the preoperational stage. Choice D is incorrect as basing conclusions on previous experiences is a broader concept that applies across different ages and stages of development, rather than being specific to 10-year-olds in the concrete operational stage.

4. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

5. The nurse assesses a 2-year-old who is admitted for dehydration and finds that the peripheral IV rate by gravity has slowed, even though the venous access site is healthy. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Apply a warm compress proximal to the site.
• B. Check for kinks in the tubing and raise the IV pole.
• C. Adjust the tape that stabilizes the needle.
• D. Change the IV solution bag.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a nurse assesses a slowed IV rate by gravity with a healthy venous access site in a 2-year-old admitted for dehydration, the next step would be to check for kinks in the tubing and raise the IV pole. This action ensures that the IV fluid can flow freely and reach the patient at the correct rate. Applying a warm compress proximal to the site (Choice A) is not indicated in this situation as it does not address the underlying issue of a slowed IV rate due to mechanical factors. Adjusting the tape that stabilizes the needle (Choice C) or changing the IV solution bag (Choice D) are not the priority actions in this case. These choices do not address the issue of a slowed IV rate caused by kinks in the tubing or the height of the IV pole, which are more likely reasons for the problem observed.

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