NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions
1. A client who is newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis is obviously upset and asks, 'Am I going to die?' Which response would the nurse make?
- A. Most individuals with your disease live a normal life span.
- B. Is your family here? I would like to explain your disease to all of you.
- C. The prognosis varies, as most individuals have remissions and exacerbations.
- D. Why don't you speak with your health care provider to get more details?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate response to the client's question regarding their prognosis is to acknowledge the variable nature of multiple sclerosis by stating that 'The prognosis varies, as most individuals have remissions and exacerbations.' This response provides realistic information while offering some hope. Choice A ('Most individuals with your disease live a normal life span.') gives false reassurance as repeated exacerbations may affect life span. Choice B ('Is your family here? I would like to explain your disease to all of you.') does not directly address the client's question and involves the family unnecessarily. Choice D ('Why don't you speak with your health care provider to get more details?') deflects the responsibility and does not address the client's immediate concerns about their prognosis.
2. The mental health nurse plans to discuss a client's depression with the health care provider in the emergency department. There are two clients sitting across from the emergency department desk. Which nursing action is best?
- A. Only refer to the client by gender
- B. Identify the client only by age
- C. Avoid using the client's name
- D. Discuss the client another time
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best nursing action is to discuss the client another time to ensure confidentiality. It is important to maintain the privacy of the client's information, so discussing sensitive topics like depression in a public area where conversations can be overheard is not appropriate. While options A, B, and C may seem like ways to protect the client's identity, they do not guarantee confidentiality since details like gender or age can still lead to identification. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize privacy and confidentiality by finding a more suitable time and location to have a private discussion about the client's concerns.
3. Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?
- A. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat
- B. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting
- C. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements
- D. Lack of menstruation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.
4. When emptying 350 mL of pale yellow urine from a client's urinal, the nurse notes that this is the first time the client has voided in 4 hours. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Record the amount on the client's fluid output record.
- B. Encourage the client to increase oral fluid intake.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the findings.
- D. Palpate the client's bladder for distention.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to record the amount of urine output on the client's fluid output record. The urine color and volume are within normal limits, indicating adequate hydration. There is no indication of a need to encourage increased oral fluid intake or notify the healthcare provider as the findings are normal. Palpating the client's bladder for distention is unnecessary in this scenario since the client has successfully voided a normal amount of urine after 4 hours.
5. A 28-month-old toddler is admitted to the pediatric unit with suspected meningitis. A few hours later the mother tells the nurse, 'I have to leave now, but whenever I try to go, my child gets upset, and then I start to cry.' Which is the best action by the nurse?
- A. Walking the mother to the elevator
- B. Encouraging the mother to spend the night
- C. Staying with the child while the mother leaves
- D. Telling the mother to wait until the child falls asleep
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best action for the nurse in this situation is to stay with the child while the mother leaves. By doing so, the nurse can provide comfort and reassurance to both the child and the mother. This approach acknowledges the mother's need to leave while ensuring the child is not left alone and is supported during the separation. Walking the mother to the elevator does not address the child's emotional needs and may not provide adequate support. Encouraging the mother to spend the night is not necessary and may not be feasible for her. Telling the mother to wait until the child falls asleep is not recommended as it may create a sense of dishonesty and uncertainty for the child, who should be aware of the mother's departure and reassured that she will return.
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