NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. Which implemented strategies would not be effective in preventing post-traumatic stress in the nursing staff?
- A. Providing breaks to the staff whenever needed
- B. Encouraging the staff to work for more than 12 hours per day
- C. Encouraging the staff to encourage and support their coworkers
- D. Asking the staff and managers to talk about their feelings with each other
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To prevent post-traumatic stress in the nursing staff, it is crucial to avoid overworking them. Encouraging staff to work for more than 12 hours per day can lead to burnout and increased stress levels, thus exacerbating post-traumatic stress. Providing breaks whenever needed is essential to ensure rest and rejuvenation during demanding shifts. Encouraging staff to support and uplift their coworkers can create a positive work environment, fostering resilience against stress. Additionally, promoting open communication by asking staff and managers to discuss their feelings can facilitate emotional processing and mutual support, ultimately reducing the risk of post-traumatic stress.
2. When taking a client's blood pressure, the nurse is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard. Which is the best action for the nurse to take?
- A. Deflate the cuff completely and immediately reattempt the reading.
- B. Re-inflate the cuff completely and leave it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds before taking the second reading.
- C. Deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading.
- D. Document the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When the nurse is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard while taking a client's blood pressure, the best action is to deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading. Deflating the cuff for this duration allows blood flow to return to the extremity, ensuring an accurate reading on that extremity a second time. Option A of deflating the cuff completely and immediately reattempting the reading could lead to a falsely high reading. Option B, re-inflating the cuff completely and leaving it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds, reduces circulation, causes pain, and may alter the reading. Option D, documenting the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen, is not a reliable method for assessing blood pressure and does not address the issue of obtaining an accurate reading.
3. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
- B. How active is your current sex life?
- C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
- D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.
4. A client who is at 28 weeks' gestation and in active labor is crying. She says, 'I just know that this baby is going to die. What's the use of doing all this to save it?' Which explanation would interpret the client's statements?
- A. She is depressed and needs gentle, positive support during labor.
- B. She is experiencing anticipatory grief and withdrawing from bonding.
- C. She is in need of emotional support to help her cope with the impending birth.
- D. She is struggling to cope with the birth by using the word 'it.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's statement indicates anticipatory grief, where she is preparing for a potential loss. This grief is not necessarily about the literal death of the baby but about the loss of the anticipated healthy full-term baby. The client may not be ready to bond with the reality of a preterm baby. Providing gentle, positive support is essential to help her cope with her feelings, as firm support may come across as dismissive. Sedation is not appropriate as it could hinder the client's emotional processing. Allowing the client to express her emotions and work through anticipatory grieving is crucial. The use of the word 'it' reflects the client's emotional struggle and is not the primary issue at hand.
5. Which of the following interventions is essential when working with a client who has antisocial personality disorder?
- A. Monitor intake and output
- B. Set strict limits on behavior
- C. Provide diversion for the client
- D. Limit visits from family or friends
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When working with a client diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder, it is crucial to set strict limits on their behavior. This disorder is characterized by manipulative behavior, impulsivity, and deceitfulness. By setting strict limits, the nurse can establish boundaries to prevent the client from manipulating others or engaging in disruptive behaviors. Monitoring intake and output (Choice A) is not directly related to managing antisocial personality disorder. Providing diversion (Choice C) or limiting visits from family or friends (Choice D) may not address the core issues associated with this disorder, such as manipulation and boundary violations.
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