Nursing Elites

1. Which implemented strategies would not be effective in preventing post-traumatic stress in the nursing staff?

• A. Providing breaks to the staff whenever needed
• B. Encouraging the staff to work for more than 12 hours per day
• C. Encouraging the staff to encourage and support their coworkers
• D. Asking the staff and managers to talk about their feelings with each other

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent post-traumatic stress in the nursing staff, it is crucial to avoid overworking them. Encouraging staff to work for more than 12 hours per day can lead to burnout and increased stress levels, thus exacerbating post-traumatic stress. Providing breaks whenever needed is essential to ensure rest and rejuvenation during demanding shifts. Encouraging staff to support and uplift their coworkers can create a positive work environment, fostering resilience against stress. Additionally, promoting open communication by asking staff and managers to discuss their feelings can facilitate emotional processing and mutual support, ultimately reducing the risk of post-traumatic stress.

2. The best way for a healthcare provider and a healthcare facility to control the effects of poor and disruptive patient behavior is to _________________.

• A. prevent it
• B. restrain the patient
• C. medicate the patient
• D. isolate the patient

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective approach to managing poor and disruptive patient behavior is by preventing it proactively. This involves implementing strategies, communication techniques, and environmental modifications that address the underlying causes of the behavior. Restraint, medication, and isolation should only be used as a last resort when the patient or others are at risk of harm. Restraint and isolation are primarily used to ensure safety, while medication, especially when used solely to control behavior, can have adverse effects and is considered a measure of last resort. Therefore, prevention is crucial in promoting a therapeutic environment and fostering positive patient outcomes.

3. The nurse observes a UAP taking a client's blood pressure in the lower extremity. Which observation of this procedure requires the nurse's intervention?

• A. The cuff wraps around the girth of the leg.
• B. The UAP auscultates the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg.
• C. The client is placed in a prone position.
• D. The systolic reading is 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When obtaining blood pressure in the lower extremities, the popliteal pulse should be auscultated when the blood pressure cuff is applied around the thigh. The nurse should intervene when the UAP is auscultating the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg because this is incorrect placement. Option A, wrapping the cuff around the girth of the leg, ensures an accurate assessment. Option C, placing the client in a prone position, provides the best access to the artery. The systolic pressure in the popliteal artery is typically 10 to 40 mm Hg higher than in the brachial artery, so a systolic reading 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm is within the expected range and does not require intervention.

4. Which nurse statement defines boundaries in the orientation phase of the nurse-client relationship when talking to a depressed client who has just been admitted to the psychiatric unit?

• A. ''Tell me about the relationship that you have with your mother and father.''
• B. ''Hello! I'm Nurse Andrea. I'll introduce you around and help you settle in.''
• C. ''What is the main thing that you would like to work on during therapy?'
• D. ''I understand that you have been depressed. What can you tell me about that?'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the orientation phase of the nurse-client relationship, setting boundaries involves establishing the nurse's role and responsibilities while maintaining a professional distance. Option B demonstrates a clear boundary by introducing the nurse and offering assistance with settling in, which is appropriate for the initial phase of building rapport with the client. Choices A, C, and D delve into personal or therapeutic topics that are more suitable for the working phase of the relationship when the client's goals and problems are being addressed. Asking about the client's family relationships (Choice A), therapy focus (Choice C), or delving into the client's depression (Choice D) would be more relevant in later stages of the therapeutic process, once trust and rapport have been established during the orientation phase.

5. What behavior is expected of members of Alcoholics Anonymous (AA)?

• A. Speaking at and participating in weekly meetings
• B. Promising to attend at least 12 meetings yearly
• C. Maintaining controlled drinking after 6 months
• D. Acknowledging an inability to control the drinking

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fundamental aspect of Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is the acceptance of one's inability to control their drinking behavior. This acknowledgment is crucial for individuals seeking recovery from alcohol abuse issues. While speaking at and participating in meetings is encouraged, it is not a strict requirement for AA members. Similarly, there is no specific mandate on the number of meetings to attend yearly, as long as the individual finds the support they need. Maintaining controlled drinking after 6 months is not aligned with AA principles, as the group emphasizes complete abstinence from alcohol to support long-term sobriety.

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