Nursing Elites

1. When preparing to perform a physical examination on an infant, what should the nurse do?

• A. Have the parent remove all clothing except the diaper.
• B. Instruct the parent not to feed the infant immediately before the examination.
• C. Allow the infant to suck on a pacifier during abdominal auscultation.
• D. Ensure the parent is present during the examination.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For performing a physical examination on an infant, it is important to have the parent remove all clothing except the diaper to allow for a thorough examination while ensuring the infant remains comfortable. It is recommended not to feed the infant immediately before the examination but rather 1 to 2 hours after feeding when the baby is neither too drowsy nor too hungry. While a pacifier may be used during invasive assessments or if the infant is crying, it is not typically necessary during abdominal auscultation. Having the parent present during the examination is important for the infant's security and for the parent to understand the process; however, the clothing should still be removed except for the diaper to facilitate a comprehensive assessment.

2. A client is undergoing range of motion exercises, and the nurse moves the leg in a pattern of circumduction. Which movement is the nurse performing?

• A. Bending the leg at the knee
• B. Turning the foot inward and outward
• C. Moving the leg in a circle
• D. Moving the leg forward and up

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Circumduction involves moving a limb in a circular pattern. In this scenario, the nurse is performing circumduction by moving the leg in a circular motion, engaging the muscles of the gluteus maximus and gluteus medius. Choice A, 'Bending the leg at the knee,' is incorrect as it describes flexion and extension movements. Choice B, 'Turning the foot inward and outward,' refers to inversion and eversion movements of the foot, not circumduction. Choice D, 'Moving the leg forward and up,' describes flexion and abduction movements, not circumduction.

3. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?

• A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
• B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
• C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
• D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.

4. What is the MOST ACCURATE statement regarding the ESR test?

• A. The results are diagnostic for certain conditions.
• B. Abnormal results are indicative of a potentially fatal illness.
• C. Abnormal results should be followed by additional testing.
• D. Results are reported in millimeters per hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a non-specific screening test for inflammation in the body. It is not used as a definitive diagnostic tool for specific conditions. When ESR results are abnormal, they indicate the presence of inflammation, which can be caused by various reasons. Therefore, abnormal results should be followed by additional testing to determine the underlying cause. The ESR test measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a vertical tube over the span of one hour, and results are reported in millimeters per hour. Choice A is incorrect because ESR results are not solely diagnostic for any specific condition. Choice B is incorrect as abnormal ESR results do not directly indicate a potentially fatal illness without further investigation. Choice D is incorrect as the results are reported in millimeters per hour, not per minute.

5. What term is used to refer to generalized wasting of body tissues and malnutrition?

• A. Entropion
• B. Confabulation
• C. Induration
• D. Cachexia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cachexia is the correct term used to describe the generalized wasting of body tissues, ill health, and malnutrition associated with some chronic diseases. It involves a loss of fat tissue to protect the bones and joints. Clients with cachexia are at risk of pressure ulcers and other complications due to malnutrition and poor health. Entropion refers to an eyelid condition, confabulation is a memory disturbance, and induration is the abnormal hardening of a part of the body.

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