which would the nurse do when preparing to perform a physical examination on an infant
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1. When preparing to perform a physical examination on an infant, what should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For performing a physical examination on an infant, it is important to have the parent remove all clothing except the diaper to allow for a thorough examination while ensuring the infant remains comfortable. It is recommended not to feed the infant immediately before the examination but rather 1 to 2 hours after feeding when the baby is neither too drowsy nor too hungry. While a pacifier may be used during invasive assessments or if the infant is crying, it is not typically necessary during abdominal auscultation. Having the parent present during the examination is important for the infant's security and for the parent to understand the process; however, the clothing should still be removed except for the diaper to facilitate a comprehensive assessment.

2. The nurse is teaching a student nurse about the different types of thermometers. When teaching the student about the advantages of the tympanic membrane thermometer (TMT), which statement would the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is "The rapid measurement of the TMT is beneficial for uncooperative younger children." TMT is ideal for young children who may not cooperate for oral temperatures or fear rectal temperatures. However, using TMT for newborn infants is not recommended due to inconsistencies in results. Measuring temperature with TMT is not necessarily cost-effective. The most accurate method for measuring core temperature is through rectal temperatures. TMT may not be the preferred method for patients with otitis media due to potential inaccuracies caused by fluid behind the tympanic membrane.

3. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

4. Which of these techniques uses the sense of touch to assess texture, temperature, moisture, and swelling when assessing a patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Palpation. Palpation involves using the sense of touch to assess texture, temperature, moisture, and swelling in a patient. This technique allows the nurse to feel for abnormalities and changes in the patient's tissues. Inspection primarily relies on visual assessment, while percussion involves tapping on the body to produce sounds and assess underlying structures. Auscultation, on the other hand, involves listening to sounds within the body using a stethoscope. Therefore, in the context of assessing texture, temperature, moisture, and swelling, palpation is the most appropriate technique.

5. A patient is diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which of the following blood pressures would you expect to see in this patient prior to taking medications for the condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before starting medications for essential hypertension, a patient would typically present with a blood pressure reading equal to or greater than 140/90. This indicates high blood pressure and is characteristic of essential hypertension. Choice A, 142/92, falls within this range, making it the correct answer. Choices B (118/72), C (120/80), and D (138/88) all have blood pressure readings that are within the normal range and would not typically be expected in a patient diagnosed with essential hypertension. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the elevated blood pressure levels seen in essential hypertension.

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