a female staff nurse is assessing a male patient of arab descent who is admitted with complaints of severe headaches it is most important for the char
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX Psychosocial Questions

1. A female nurse is assessing a male patient of Arab descent who is admitted with complaints of severe headaches. It is most important for the nurse to intervene if she takes which action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In some Arab cultures, it is not considered appropriate for a male to be alone with a female who is not his spouse. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to respect the patient's cultural beliefs and privacy by ensuring that a female nurse is not alone with the male patient. Sitting down at the bedside and closing the privacy curtain could potentially lead to a situation where the nurse is alone with the patient, which goes against the patient's cultural norms. The other actions, such as explaining the pain scale, asking about the onset of headaches, and requesting a male nurse to bring a hospital gown, are all appropriate and do not conflict with the patient's cultural beliefs.

2. The nurse plans care for a hospitalized patient who uses culturally based treatments. Which action by the nurse is best?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best action for the nurse is to coordinate the use of folk treatments with ordered medical therapies. Many culturally based therapies can complement Western treatments and medications. It is essential for the nurse to integrate both traditional folk treatments and Western therapies to provide holistic care. Some culturally based treatments can effectively complement Western medicine in treating diseases. Encouraging the patient to continue some culturally based treatments during hospitalization can enhance their overall well-being. Asking the patient to discontinue cultural treatments or teaching that folk remedies interfere with Western therapies may not align with the patient's beliefs and could hinder their care.

3. Which approach would the healthcare provider use when managing the care of a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare provider would assist the client with the development of healthy, adaptive coping mechanisms. GAD is characterized by the maladaptive use of worrying as a coping mechanism. The ultimate goal is for the healthcare provider to help the client replace the ineffective worrying with effective, healthy coping mechanisms. Creating an anxiety-free environment is not feasible or recommended; the goal is to help the client learn to deal with anxiety in a healthy manner. While identifying triggers is important, avoiding all triggers that produce anxiety is often impractical. Providing reinforcement that anxiety issues can be eliminated is not appropriate as anxiety is a normal human experience that needs to be managed effectively rather than eliminated completely.

4. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.

5. The nurse who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is not to administer the medication and document the reason. Since the adolescent client is a minor, parental or guardian consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. Option A, reviewing the chart for a signed consent for medication administration, is not the appropriate action in this situation as the focus is on parental consent for the client. Option B is incorrect because obtaining the health care provider's permission does not replace the need for parental consent for a minor. Option D, completing an incident report and notifying the supervisor, is unnecessary as there is no adverse event to report; the key concern is the lack of parental consent for medication administration.

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