NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. A female nurse is assessing a male patient of Arab descent who is admitted with complaints of severe headaches. It is most important for the nurse to intervene if she takes which action?
- A. The nurse explains the 0 to 10 intensity pain scale.
- B. The nurse asks the patient when the headaches started.
- C. The nurse sits down at the bedside and closes the privacy curtain.
- D. The nurse calls for a male nurse to bring a hospital gown to the room.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In some Arab cultures, it is not considered appropriate for a male to be alone with a female who is not his spouse. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to respect the patient's cultural beliefs and privacy by ensuring that a female nurse is not alone with the male patient. Sitting down at the bedside and closing the privacy curtain could potentially lead to a situation where the nurse is alone with the patient, which goes against the patient's cultural norms. The other actions, such as explaining the pain scale, asking about the onset of headaches, and requesting a male nurse to bring a hospital gown, are all appropriate and do not conflict with the patient's cultural beliefs.
2. Which client is most likely to be at risk for spiritual distress?
- A. Roman Catholic woman considering an abortion
- B. Jewish man considering hospice care for his wife
- C. Seventh-Day Adventist who needs a blood transfusion
- D. Muslim man who needs a total knee replacement
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the Roman Catholic woman considering an abortion. In the Roman Catholic faith, abortion is strictly prohibited, so making a decision regarding abortion can bring about spiritual distress. The Jewish faith does not have restrictions on hospice care. It is Jehovah's Witnesses, not Seventh-Day Adventists, who do not accept blood transfusions due to religious beliefs. Additionally, there are no religious prohibitions against joint replacement in the Muslim faith.
3. During her shift at the hospital, a nurse receives a stern reprimand from a physician over something over which she had no control. The nurse does not respond. When she returns home that evening, she sees her children's toys all over the floor, gets mad, and begins to yell at them. Which form of defense mechanism is this nurse using?
- A. Symbolization
- B. Suppression
- C. Displacement
- D. Projection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Displacement is the process of redirecting feelings or impulses from one person to another. In this scenario, the nurse chose not to respond to the physician, but instead displaced her negative emotions onto her children, who are less threatening and more vulnerable. This defense mechanism allowed her to express her anger in a safer outlet. Symbolization involves representing unconscious feelings or impulses through symbols, not redirecting them. Suppression is the conscious effort to push unwanted thoughts or feelings out of awareness, not displacing them onto others. Projection involves attributing one's thoughts or emotions to someone else, which is not evident in this case.
4. Jerry is a 55-year-old veteran who has been admitted after a motor vehicle accident with multiple injuries. His friend reported that he had been using synthetic marijuana prior to the accident, and that he also sees a psychiatrist at the VA hospital for an unknown diagnosis. He stated that Jerry sometimes gets "hyper"? for no reason, starts "ranting"? and becomes violent. Of the following, which general psychiatric disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
- C. Bipolar disorder
- D. Delusional disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bipolar disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes. This disorder is highly co-morbid with substance use, which can worsen the prognosis. While schizophrenia may involve aggression, it is not typically associated with mood episodes like mania that characterize bipolar disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is primarily characterized by re-experiencing traumatic events, avoidance behaviors, and hyperarousal, but not the distinct mood episodes seen in bipolar disorder. Delusional disorder is characterized by fixed false beliefs without the mood changes seen in bipolar disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is Bipolar disorder.
5. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?
- A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
- B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
- C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
- D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.
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