which statement describes the psychodynamics of a client calling the emergency department during the very act of a suicide attempt
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX Psychosocial Questions

1. What psychodynamic process is suggested by a client calling the emergency department during a suicide attempt?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ambivalence about dying.' When a client calls the emergency department during a suicide attempt, it suggests conflicting feelings about living and dying. This act can indicate an unconscious desire to be stopped from dying, showing ambivalence between the wish to die and the wish to live. It is not primarily a cry for attention or a need to punish others. The client's intention of suicide alongside seeking help demonstrates the struggle between life and death, making ambivalence the key psychodynamic process at play.

2. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.

3. A neonate born at 32 weeks' gestation and weighing 3 lb (1361 g) is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU). When would the nurse take the neonate's mother to visit the infant?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The mother should see her infant as soon as possible to acknowledge the reality of the birth and begin bonding. Delaying the visit may impede maternal-infant bonding. The timing of the mother's visit should be based on her physical and emotional readiness, not solely on the infant's condition or the need for written permission. The nurse can independently facilitate the mother's visit without requiring a prescription from the primary healthcare provider.

4. While conducting an intake assessment of an adult male at a community mental health clinic, the nurse notes that his affect is flat, he responds to questions with short answers, and he reports problems with sleeping. He reports that his life partner recently died from pneumonia. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is exhibiting normal grieving behaviors, so referral to a grief counselor is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Option B is relevant but is not a high-priority intervention compared to addressing the immediate grief support needs of the client. Option C is irrelevant at this time but might be important when determining the client's risk for contracting the illness. While antidepressant medication might be necessary based on further assessment, grief counseling is a more appropriate initial action as grief is a typical response to the loss of a loved one.

5. Which of the following is an example of non-reversible dementia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Non-reversible dementia refers to a condition where individuals experience permanent and often progressive cognitive decline. Pick's disease is a type of non-reversible dementia characterized by changes in personality, behavior, and language difficulties. Syphilis (Choice B) is a reversible cause of dementia that can be treated with antibiotics. Encephalopathy (Choice C) is a broad term for brain dysfunction that can be reversible or irreversible depending on the cause. Hyperthyroidism (Choice D) can lead to cognitive impairment but is reversible with appropriate treatment. Therefore, Pick's disease is the correct example of non-reversible dementia among the options provided.

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