NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. Which risk factor for suicide is considered the most lethal?
- A. History of alcohol and drug abuse
- B. Previous high-lethality suicide attempts
- C. Recent withdrawal from friends
- D. Disturbance of family dynamics
Correct answer: Previous high-lethality suicide attempts
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Previous high-lethality suicide attempts.' This is the most lethal risk factor as it indicates that the individual has previously attempted suicide in a manner that could lead to death. This history increases the likelihood of future attempts. While substance abuse, like alcohol and drug use, is a significant risk factor for suicide, it is not considered the most lethal. Withdrawal from friends or social isolation can contribute to suicide risk but is not as directly deadly as high-lethality attempts. Disturbance of family dynamics can also be a stressor but does not represent the immediate lethality associated with a history of high-lethality suicide attempts.
2. An increase in the neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with which of the following illnesses?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Depression
- C. Alzheimer's disease
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: Schizophrenia
Rationale: An increase in the neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with schizophrenia. Dopamine dysregulation is linked to some symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. Depression (choice B) is more commonly associated with abnormalities in serotonin and norepinephrine. Alzheimer's disease (choice C) is primarily characterized by deficits in acetylcholine and other neurotransmitters. Anxiety disorders (choice D) are often linked to imbalances in neurotransmitters like serotonin, norepinephrine, and GABA, rather than dopamine.
3. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of dementia of the Alzheimer type?
- A. There is a genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters.
- B. The dementia is transient and secondary to a physical imbalance or disorder.
- C. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion of select areas of the brain cause tissue damage.
- D. The presence of amyloid plaques is associated with brain tissue destruction.
Correct answer: The presence of amyloid plaques is associated with brain tissue destruction.
Rationale: In Alzheimer's disease, the accumulation of amyloid plaques in the brain is a hallmark feature. These plaques are associated with the destruction of brain tissue, contributing to the cognitive decline seen in dementia. Genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters are factors linked to the development of Alzheimer's disease, but the primary pathology lies in the amyloid plaques. Transient dementia is not characteristic of Alzheimer's disease, which is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion are more typical of vascular dementia, where blood flow to the brain is compromised.
4. When assisting a client from the bed to a chair, which procedure is best for the nurse to follow?
- A. Place the chair parallel to the bed, with its back toward the head of the bed, and assist the client in moving to the chair.
- B. With the nurse's feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's knees, stand and pivot the client into the chair.
- C. Assist the client to a standing position by gently lifting upward from underneath the axillae.
- D. Stand beside the client, place the client's arms around the nurse's neck, and gently move the client to the chair.
Correct answer: With the nurse's feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's knees, stand and pivot the client into the chair.
Rationale: Option B is the correct procedure for assisting a client from the bed to a chair. By positioning the nurse's feet apart and aligning the knees with the client's knees, the nurse maintains a stable base of support while pivoting the client into the chair. This technique minimizes the risk of injury to both the nurse and the client. Placing the chair at a 45-degree angle to the bed, with the back of the chair toward the head of the bed, provides a clear path for the client to move. Option C is incorrect because lifting a client under the axillae can potentially cause nerve damage and strain. Option D is also incorrect as it involves an unsafe method of moving the client and can lead to injuries or accidents.
5. What factor is likely the reason a woman with bipolar disorder, manic episode, rarely eats?
- A. Feelings of guilt
- B. Need to control others
- C. Desire for punishment
- D. Excessive physical activity
Correct answer: Excessive physical activity
Rationale: During a manic episode of bipolar disorder, individuals often experience hyperactivity and an inability to stay still. This hyperactivity can manifest as excessive physical activity, which can prevent them from eating regularly. The correct answer is 'Excessive physical activity' because it directly relates to the woman's lack of appetite during the manic episode. Feelings of guilt, the need to control others, and the desire for punishment are not typically associated with eating difficulties in individuals with bipolar disorder during a manic episode. Clients in a manic episode usually have heightened energy levels and may engage in activities that exhaust them, leading to a decreased focus on eating.
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