NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. Which of the following is an example of an opioid?
- A. Mescaline
- B. Diazepam
- C. Phenobarbital
- D. Methadone
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Opioids are a type of drug classified as narcotics. Nurses working with clients with substance abuse issues often encounter opioids. Opioids have the potential for addiction. Examples of opioids include methadone, codeine, morphine, and hydromorphone. Mescaline (Choice A) is a hallucinogen, not an opioid. Diazepam (Choice B) is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety and other conditions, not an opioid. Phenobarbital (Choice C) is a barbiturate used to treat seizures and insomnia, not an opioid.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing several clients before surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications during surgery?
- A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
- B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
- C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
- D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is taking anticoagulants for the past year. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications. It is crucial for the healthcare provider to be aware of this medication. While clients taking birth control pills (option A) may be more prone to developing blood clots, these issues typically arise after surgery. Clients who recently completed antibiotic therapy (option C) or have taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months (option D) are at lower risk compared to those taking anticoagulants (option B) during surgery.
3. Which behavior best indicates that the client has received adequate preparation for the scheduled diagnostic studies?
- A. Asks for the tests to be explained again
- B. Checks the appointment card multiple times
- C. Arrives early and waits quietly to be called for the tests
- D. Paces back and forth in the hallway on the morning of the tests
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is arriving early and waiting quietly to be called for the tests. This behavior indicates that the client is prepared, as early arrival suggests an expected degree of anxiety and the quiet waiting indicates a lower level of anxiety and adequate preparation. Asking for the tests to be explained again may signal inadequate explanation, nervousness, or poor memory. Checking the appointment card repeatedly or pacing up and down the hallway indicate a high level of anxiety, which could be associated with inadequate teaching. Nurses providing preprocedural teaching should assess for anxiety related to procedures, coping mechanisms, and retention of information post-teaching. If issues are identified, strategies such as paraphrasing information, having a support person present, seeking advice from someone who has undergone the procedure, or visiting the test center beforehand can be utilized.
4. When assisting an older adult client to prepare to take a tub bath, which nursing action is most important?
- A. Check the bath water temperature.
- B. Shut the bathroom door.
- C. Ensure that the client has voided.
- D. Provide extra towels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most critical nursing action when assisting an older adult client in preparing for a tub bath is to check the bath water temperature. This step is essential to prevent burns or excessive chilling, prioritizing the client's safety. While ensuring privacy by shutting the bathroom door (option B), confirming that the client has voided (option C), and providing extra towels (option D) are all important for comfort and dignity, they are secondary to ensuring the client's safety during bathing. Therefore, checking the bath water temperature is the priority to safeguard the client's well-being and prevent potential injuries.
5. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?
- A. Olanzapine
- B. Meperidine
- C. Ziprasidone
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.
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