Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client's pulse oximetry on the surgical unit. As part of routine interventions, the nurse turns off the exam light over the client's bed. Which of the following best describes the rationale for this intervention?

• A. External light sources may cause falsely high oximetry values
• B. A bright light in the client's face may cause a low pulse oximetry
• C. External light sources may cause falsely low oximetry values
• D. The client needs a dark and quiet room to recover and maintain proper oxygenation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a client's pulse oximetry values, the nurse should turn off any extra environmental lights that are unnecessary, including exam lights or over-bed lights. External light sources may cause falsely high oximetry values when the extra light interferes with the sensor of the oximeter, leading to inaccurate readings. Choice B is incorrect because a bright light in the client's face would not directly affect the pulse oximetry values. Choice C is incorrect as external light sources typically cause falsely high, not low, oximetry values. Choice D is incorrect as the primary reason for turning off the light is to prevent falsely high readings, not solely for the client's comfort.

2. A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Delirium
• B. Muscle rigidity
• C. Hypotension
• D. Pinpoint rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.

3. A patient with peripheral vascular disease is receiving discharge instructions. Which of the following information should be included?

• A. Walk barefoot whenever possible.
• B. Use a heating pad to keep feet warm.
• C. Avoid crossing the legs.
• D. Use antibacterial ointment to treat skin lesions prone to infection.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with peripheral vascular disease should be advised to avoid crossing their legs as this can impede blood flow. Peripheral vascular disease, also known as arteriosclerosis obliterans, is primarily caused by atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis results in the gradual progression of arterial occlusion due to the formation of atheromas. Crossed legs can further restrict blood flow, exacerbating the condition. Walking barefoot should be discouraged to prevent potential injuries to the feet. Using a heating pad can lead to burns and should be avoided to prevent thermal injuries. While using antibacterial ointment for skin lesions may be beneficial, it is not the priority instruction for patients with peripheral vascular disease.

4. The client is receiving discharge teaching seven (7) days post myocardial infarction and inquires why he must wait six (6) weeks before engaging in sexual intercourse. What is the best response by the nurse to this question?

• A. "You need to regain your strength before attempting such exertion."?
• B. "When you can climb 2 flights of stairs without problems, it is generally safe."?
• C. "Have a glass of wine to relax you, then you can try to have sex."?
• D. "If you can maintain an active walking program, you will have less risk."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Following a myocardial infarction, there is a risk of cardiac rupture at the site of the infarction for approximately six (6) weeks until scar tissue forms. The advice to wait until the client can climb two flights of stairs without issues is common among healthcare providers as it indicates an adequate level of physical exertion tolerance and suggests a lower risk of complications during sexual activity. Choice A is not specific to the recovery timeline related to sexual activity post-myocardial infarction. Choice C is inappropriate as alcohol consumption should not be recommended before sexual activity. Choice D, though promoting an active lifestyle, does not directly address the safety concerns related to sexual intercourse post-myocardial infarction.

5. Which of the following is a function of risk management?

• A. To consider the problems that arise if errors happen and their effects on the healthcare environment
• B. To identify how nursing care responds to specific client problems
• C. To view clients as customers and decide what actions will provide a satisfying healthcare experience
• D. To analyze physician-nurse relationships and determine where collaboration efforts can improve

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The function of risk management in healthcare is to assess and address potential risks that could lead to errors and their effects on the healthcare environment. This involves identifying, evaluating, and prioritizing risks to minimize their impact and prevent adverse outcomes. Choice A is correct because it aligns with the core purpose of risk management in healthcare. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the primary focus of risk management, which is the proactive management of risks to ensure patient safety and quality care.

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