Nursing Elites

1. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to maintain the patency of a client's nasogastric tube?

• A. Maintain a constant connection to low-intermittent suction
• B. Irrigate the tube as per physician's order
• C. Suction the mouth and nose every shift
• D. Perform a daily fecal occult blood sample

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to irrigate the tube as per physician's order. A client with a nasogastric tube is at risk of the tube kinking or clotting off, which can lead to complications such as abdominal distention or vomiting. To ensure the patency of the tube, the nurse should follow the physician's orders and facility policy to irrigate the tube with water or a solution as needed. Maintaining a constant connection to low-intermittent suction (Choice A) is not typically done to maintain tube patency. Suctioning the mouth and nose every shift (Choice C) is not directly related to maintaining nasogastric tube patency. Performing a daily fecal occult blood sample (Choice D) is unrelated to maintaining the patency of a nasogastric tube.

2. A nurse is caring for an 83-year-old man who has had swallowing difficulties. All of the following interventions are appropriate for this client EXCEPT:

• A. Keep the client in an upright position at all times
• B. Auscultate lung sounds every shift and after feedings
• C. Maintain suction equipment at the client's bedside
• D. Instruct the client about how to perform swallowing exercises

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a client with swallowing difficulties, it is crucial to prevent aspiration of food into the lungs. Appropriate interventions include auscultating lung sounds every shift and after feedings to assess for any changes in breathing patterns, maintaining suction equipment at the client's bedside in case of difficulties, and providing instruction on swallowing exercises. Keeping the client in an upright position at all times is not necessary and may not always be feasible or comfortable for the client. This rigid requirement is not part of the standard care protocol for managing swallowing difficulties.

3. The client is receiving discharge teaching seven (7) days post myocardial infarction and inquires why he must wait six (6) weeks before engaging in sexual intercourse. What is the best response by the nurse to this question?

• A. "You need to regain your strength before attempting such exertion."?
• B. "When you can climb 2 flights of stairs without problems, it is generally safe."?
• C. "Have a glass of wine to relax you, then you can try to have sex."?
• D. "If you can maintain an active walking program, you will have less risk."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Following a myocardial infarction, there is a risk of cardiac rupture at the site of the infarction for approximately six (6) weeks until scar tissue forms. The advice to wait until the client can climb two flights of stairs without issues is common among healthcare providers as it indicates an adequate level of physical exertion tolerance and suggests a lower risk of complications during sexual activity. Choice A is not specific to the recovery timeline related to sexual activity post-myocardial infarction. Choice C is inappropriate as alcohol consumption should not be recommended before sexual activity. Choice D, though promoting an active lifestyle, does not directly address the safety concerns related to sexual intercourse post-myocardial infarction.

4. As you are assessing the fetus during labor, you are determining the fetal lie, presentation, attitude, station, and position. Your client asks you what all these assessments are. Among other things, how should you respond to the mother?

• A. You should explain that fetal lie is where the fetus's presenting part is within the birth canal during labor, among other information about the other assessments.
• B. You should explain that fetal presentation is the relationship of the fetus's spine to the mother's spine, among other information about the other assessments.
• C. You should explain that fetal attitude is the relationship of the fetus's presenting part to the anterior, posterior, right, or left side of the mother's pelvis, among other information about the other assessments.
• D. You should explain that fetal station is the level of the fetus's presenting part in relationship to the mother's ischial spines, among other information about the other assessments.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: You should explain that fetal station is the level of the fetus's presenting part in relationship to the mother's ischial spines. Fetal station is measured in terms of the number of centimeters above or below the mother's ischial spines. When the fetus is 1 to 5 centimeters above the ischial spines, the fetal station is -1 to -5, and when the fetus is 1 to 5 centimeters below the level of the maternal ischial spines, the fetal station is +1 to +5. Choices A, B, and C provide incorrect information about fetal lie, presentation, and attitude, respectively, which do not align with the definitions of these terms in obstetrics.

5. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom?

• A. Haloperidol (Haldol) to address the negative symptom
• B. Clonazepam (Klonopin) to address the positive symptom
• C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom
• D. Clozapine (Clozaril) to address the negative symptom

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct medication to address the symptom described, where the client is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others, is Risperidone (Risperdal). Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that is commonly used to manage positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Positive symptoms can include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Haloperidol (Haldol) and Clozapine (Clozaril) are typically used for addressing negative symptoms, such as lack of motivation or social withdrawal. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is a benzodiazepine primarily used for anxiety disorders and seizures, not for addressing symptoms of schizophrenia.

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