Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is using active listening as a form of therapeutic communication when:

• A. She uses humor to put the client at ease in a situation
• B. She restates what the client said in slightly different words
• C. She uses eye contact and maintains an open stance while the client is talking
• D. She provides personal information to show the client she can relate to him

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Active listening is a form of therapeutic communication that involves the nurse encouraging a client to express their thoughts and feelings. Maintaining eye contact and an open stance while the client is talking demonstrates active listening and shows the client that they are being heard and understood. Using humor (Choice A) may not always be appropriate or therapeutic in all situations. Restating what the client said (Choice B) is a technique known as paraphrasing and is also a form of active listening. Providing personal information (Choice D) can shift the focus from the client to the nurse, which is not the intention of active listening.

2. The OR nursing staff are preparing a client for a surgical procedure. The anesthesiologist has given the client medications, and the client has entered the induction stage of anesthesia. The nursing staff can expect which of the following symptoms and activities from the client during this time?

• A. Irregular breathing patterns
• B. Minimal heartbeat, dilated pupils
• C. Relaxed muscles, regular breathing, constricted pupils
• D. Euphoria, drowsiness, dizziness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the induction stage of anesthesia, the client may exhibit symptoms like euphoria, drowsiness, or dizziness. This stage occurs after the administration of medications by the anesthesiologist and ends when the client loses consciousness. Choice A is incorrect as irregular breathing patterns are not typically associated with the induction stage. Choice B is incorrect as minimal heartbeat and dilated pupils are not commonly observed during this stage. Choice C is incorrect as relaxed muscles, regular breathing, and constricted pupils are not indicative of the induction stage of anesthesia.

3. Which of the following screening tools have been found to have high diagnostic accuracy for screening for intimate partner violence?

• A. Hurt, Insult, Threaten, and Scream (HITS)
• B. Humiliation, Afraid, Rape, and Kick (HARK)
• C. Slapped, Threatened, and Thrown (STaT)
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the above screening tools, including HITS, HARK, and STaT, have been found to have high diagnostic accuracy for screening intimate partner violence, as per the National Preventive Services Task Force. These tools are effective in identifying current or recent intimate partner violence. While the Partner Violence screen may have some predictive value for future intimate partner violence, the question specifically focuses on screening tools with high diagnostic accuracy, making 'All of the above' the correct choice. Choices A, B, and C are specific validated screening tools for intimate partner violence, each with its own set of questions that have been shown to be effective in identifying individuals experiencing intimate partner violence. Therefore, 'All of the above' is the most comprehensive and accurate choice for this question.

4. Mrs. G is seen for follow-up after testing for chronically high blood glucose levels. Her physician diagnoses her with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following information is part of this client's education about this condition?

• A. Type 1 diabetes occurs due to increased carbohydrate intake and lack of exercise
• B. Type 1 diabetes is managed through diet and exercise
• C. Type 1 diabetes is caused by destruction of beta cells in the pancreas
• D. Type 1 diabetes leads to the body's cells rejecting insulin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks and destroys the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to a lack of insulin production. Insulin is essential for regulating blood glucose levels and enabling cells to use glucose for energy. Understanding that type 1 diabetes results from the destruction of beta cells helps patients comprehend the need for insulin replacement therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as type 1 diabetes is not primarily caused by diet or exercise habits. Choice D is incorrect because type 1 diabetes is not about the body's cells rejecting insulin but rather the lack of insulin production due to beta cell destruction.

5. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

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