NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Prep
1. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?
- A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
- B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
- C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
- D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.
2. A client has just started a transfusion of packed red blood cells that a physician ordered. Which of the following signs may indicate a transfusion reaction?
- A. The client suddenly complains of back pain and has chills
- B. The client develops dependent edema in the extremities
- C. The client has a seizure
- D. The client's heart rate drops to 60 bpm
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is when the client suddenly complains of back pain and has chills. Signs of a transfusion reaction include back pain, chills, dizziness, increased temperature, and blood in the urine. These signs indicate a possible adverse reaction to the blood transfusion. Dependent edema in the extremities is not typically associated with a transfusion reaction. A seizure is not a common sign of a transfusion reaction unless it is due to severe complications. A decrease in heart rate to 60 bpm is not a typical sign of a transfusion reaction, but rather bradycardia may indicate other underlying conditions or medications.
3. Which of the following is an example of an environmental hazard that may put the healthcare professional at risk of injury?
- A. Loud noise from the hospital maintenance system
- B. Airborne powder containing latex
- C. Chemicals containing ethylene oxide
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Healthcare professionals, including nurses, are exposed to various environmental hazards that may negatively impact their physical or mental health. Hazards come in several forms, such as loud noise from hospital systems, which can damage hearing; airborne latex powder, leading to allergic reactions; and chemicals like ethylene oxide, a sterilizing agent that can cause cancer. Therefore, all the options listed pose risks to healthcare professionals, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choice A, loud noise, is a hazard that can affect hearing health. Choice B, airborne latex powder, can trigger allergic responses. Choice C, chemicals containing ethylene oxide, are hazardous and can lead to serious health issues. Each option represents a distinct environmental risk that healthcare professionals should be aware of and take precautions against.
4. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 20-year-old marathon runner and documents the following vital signs: temperature"?36�C; pulse"?48 beats per minute; respirations"?14 breaths per minute; blood pressure"?104/68 mm Hg. Which statement is true concerning these results?
- A. The patient is experiencing bradycardia.
- B. These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.
- C. The patient's pulse rate is not normal"?no action is required.
- D. The patient's next clinic visit should occur as scheduled.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.' A pulse rate of 48 beats per minute is considered bradycardia in adults, but it is not a concern in well-trained athletes like marathon runners. Bradycardia is a normal physiological response to aerobic conditioning. Tachycardia, on the other hand, is defined as a pulse rate above 100 beats per minute, which is not the case here. The low pulse rate in this scenario is a reflection of the athlete's cardiovascular fitness. Therefore, there is no need to notify the physician or schedule a follow-up visit based on these findings.
5. The healthcare professional has collected the following information on a patient: palpated blood pressure"?180 mm Hg; auscultated blood pressure"?170/100 mm Hg; apical pulse"?60 beats per minute; radial pulse"?70 beats per minute. What is the patient's pulse pressure?
- A. 10
- B. 70
- C. 80
- D. 100
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pulse pressure is the numerical difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings. In this case, the systolic blood pressure is 170 mm Hg, and the diastolic blood pressure is 100 mm Hg. Therefore, the pulse pressure is calculated as 170 - 100 = 70 mm Hg. Pulse pressure reflects the stroke volume, the amount of blood ejected from the heart with each beat. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings provided.
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