which of the following statements best describes footdrop
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Prep

1. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

2. You have measured the urinary output of your resident at the end of your 8-hour shift. The output is 25 ounces. What should you do next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: You should convert the number of ounces into cc because cc is the unit of measurement used to record intake and output accurately. This urinary output falls within normal limits, so there is no need to report it immediately to the nurse. It is essential to report urinary outputs of less than 30 cc per hour to detect potential issues early. Converting ounces into centimeters (cm) is not appropriate in this context as cm is a unit of length, not volume. Knowing that 25 ounces of urine is too much in 8 hours is inaccurate as it depends on various factors like fluid intake and individual differences.

3. A patient works with a nurse to establish outcomes. The nurse believes that one outcome suggested by the patient is not in the patient's best interest. What is the nurse's best action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should collaborate with the patient rather than impose personal opinions. While the nurse should respect the patient's autonomy, they also have a duty to provide guidance. By exploring possible consequences of the suggested outcome with the patient, the nurse can facilitate a discussion that helps the patient make an informed decision. This approach respects the patient's input while ensuring their well-being. Remaining silent (Choice A) may not address the issue, educating the patient unilaterally (Choice B) may be perceived as dismissive, and formulating an outcome without patient input (Choice D) disregards the patient's autonomy and preferences.

4. During an initial assessment interview, which statement made by a patient should serve as the priority focus for the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement about hearing evil voices indicates that the patient is experiencing auditory hallucinations, which is a significant symptom that requires immediate attention and intervention. This symptom can be associated with serious mental health conditions like psychosis. Choices A, B, and C are more general statements that do not provide specific information about the patient's mental health status or symptoms, making them less urgent and not as critical for the plan of care compared to the presence of auditory hallucinations.

5. Which of these techniques uses the sense of touch to assess texture, temperature, moisture, and swelling when assessing a patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Palpation. Palpation involves using the sense of touch to assess texture, temperature, moisture, and swelling in a patient. This technique allows the nurse to feel for abnormalities and changes in the patient's tissues. Inspection primarily relies on visual assessment, while percussion involves tapping on the body to produce sounds and assess underlying structures. Auscultation, on the other hand, involves listening to sounds within the body using a stethoscope. Therefore, in the context of assessing texture, temperature, moisture, and swelling, palpation is the most appropriate technique.

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