which of the following statements best describes footdrop
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NCLEX RN Exam Prep

1. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

2. Which of these is a correctly stated outcome goal written by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Outcome goals should be SMART, i.e., Specific, Measurable, Appropriate, Realistic, and Timely. Option A is the only outcome that has a specific behavior (walks daily), with measurable performance criteria (2 miles), and a time estimate for goal attainment (by March 19). Option B lacks specificity in terms of what 'understand how to give insulin' entails, and the timeline is vague ('by discharge'). Option C is not measurable or specific about what 'regain their former state of health' means. Option D does not provide a specific behavior or measurable criteria for 'desired mobility,' and the timeline is the only element that is time-bound.

3. A client with an enlarged prostate is having trouble starting his flow of urine when using the bathroom. Another name for this condition is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Urinary hesitancy occurs when a client has difficulty starting a flow of urine while using the bathroom. Hesitancy may be due to physiological factors, such as obstruction from an enlarged prostate, or due to psychological factors, such as anxiety or embarrassment. Oliguria refers to decreased urine output, retention is the inability to empty the bladder fully, and urgency is the sudden and strong need to urinate.

4. When caring for a patient with latex allergy, the healthcare provider creates a latex-safe environment by doing which of the following?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Creating a latex-safe environment for a patient with latex allergy is crucial to prevent allergic reactions. Using a latex-free pharmacy protocol is essential as it ensures that medications and supplies provided to the patient are free of latex components. Cleaning a wall-mounted blood pressure device may not be sufficient as the device itself may contain latex parts that can trigger an allergic reaction. Donning latex gloves, even outside the room, is not recommended as powder dispersal can cause issues; only non-latex gloves should be used in a latex-safe environment. Placing the patient in a semi-private room does not directly address the need to eliminate latex exposure from medical supplies and equipment, which is better achieved through a latex-free pharmacy protocol.

5. During an assessment, a nurse asks a patient, "If you had fever and vomiting for 3 days, what would you do?"? Which aspect of the mental status examination is the nurse assessing?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse is assessing cognition in this scenario. Cognition involves evaluating a patient's judgment and decision-making abilities. By asking the patient what they would do in a specific situation, the nurse aims to determine the patient's cognitive function. A correct response indicating intact cognition would involve a decision like 'Call my doctor.' If the patient suggests inappropriate actions like 'I would stop eating' or 'I would just wait and see what happened,' it would suggest impaired judgment. The other options, behavior, affect and mood, and perceptual disturbances, refer to different aspects of the mental status examination and are not directly assessed through this question.

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