NCLEX NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Prep
1. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?
- A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
- B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
- C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
- D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward
Correct answer: The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.
2. The child with hemolytic-uremic syndrome is anuric and will undergo peritoneal dialysis. Which measure should the nurse implement?
- A. Restrict fluids as prescribed.
- B. Care for the arteriovenous fistula.
- C. Encourage foods high in potassium.
- D. Administer analgesics as prescribed.
Correct answer: Restrict fluids as prescribed.
Rationale: In hemolytic-uremic syndrome, often associated with bacterial toxins and viruses, acute kidney injury occurs in children, leading to symptoms like anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal injury, and CNS symptoms. For an anuric child with hemolytic-uremic syndrome undergoing peritoneal dialysis, fluid restriction is vital to prevent fluid overload. Pain management is not directly related to hemolytic-uremic syndrome. Foods high in potassium should be limited, not encouraged, due to impaired kidney function. Peritoneal dialysis does not involve an arteriovenous fistula, which is specific to hemodialysis.
3. A client arrives at an occupational health clinic after being struck by lightning while working in a truck bed. The client is alert but reports feeling faint. Which assessment will the nurse perform first?
- A. Pulse characteristics
- B. Open airway
- C. Entrance and exit wounds
- D. Cervical spine injury
Correct answer: Pulse characteristics
Rationale: Assessing pulse characteristics is the priority in this situation due to the potential impact of lightning as a form of electrical current, which can cause irregular heart rhythms. It is crucial to evaluate the pulse rate and regularity to assess for adequate circulation and potential cardiac issues. Since the client is alert and talking, the airway is likely patent, making assessing the airway less urgent. Entrance and exit wounds and cervical spine injury assessments should follow the evaluation of pulse characteristics to ensure proper circulation and prioritize life-threatening issues first. Checking the pulse first will guide further interventions and help in determining the client's hemodynamic status.
4. A nursing student is teaching a patient and family about epilepsy prior to the patient’s discharge. For which statement should you intervene?
- A. “You should avoid consumption of all forms of alcohol.”
- B. “Wear your medical alert bracelet at all times.”
- C. “Protect your loved one’s airway during a seizure.”
- D. “It’s important to consult with your physician before taking over-the-counter medications.”
Correct answer: “It’s important to consult with your physician before taking over-the-counter medications.”
Rationale: The correct answer is, “It’s important to consult with your physician before taking over-the-counter medications.” Patients with epilepsy should not take over-the-counter medications without medical advice due to potential interactions with antiepileptic drugs or triggering seizures. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate statements for a patient with epilepsy, focusing on alcohol avoidance, wearing a medical alert bracelet, and airway protection during a seizure, respectively. Choice D is incorrect because patients with epilepsy need to be cautious about medications due to possible interactions or adverse effects, so consulting with a physician is crucial before taking over-the-counter medications.
5. A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.4 F (38.6 C), a nonproductive cough, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. The patient complains of weakness, fatigue, and needs assistance to get out of bed. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign as the highest priority?
- A. Hyperthermia related to infectious illness
- B. Impaired transfer ability related to weakness
- C. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions
- D. Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion
Correct answer: Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion.' While all the nursing diagnoses are relevant to the patient's condition, the priority should be given to impaired gas exchange due to the patient's low oxygen saturation level of 88%. This indicates a significant risk of hypoxia for all body tissues unless the gas exchange is improved. Addressing impaired gas exchange is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent further complications. Hyperthermia, impaired transfer ability, and ineffective airway clearance are important concerns but addressing gas exchange takes precedence in this scenario.
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