Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

• A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
• B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
• C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
• D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an enteral feeding through a gastrostomy tube. Before administering the feeding, the healthcare professional aspirates some stomach contents and checks the pH. The result is 3.9. What is the next action of the healthcare professional?

• A. Administer the feeding as ordered
• B. Pull the feeding tube out approximately 3 cm
• C. Flush the feeding tube with 60 cc of water
• D. Contact the physician

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the pH of the aspirated stomach contents is 4 or less, it indicates that the gastrostomy tube is in the stomach, confirming correct placement. A pH of 3.9 falls within this range, so the healthcare professional can proceed with administering the enteral feeding. There is no need to adjust the tube placement, flush with water, or contact the physician in this situation as the tube is appropriately positioned for feeding.

3. Which of the following is classified as a prerenal condition that affects urinary elimination?

• A. Nephrotoxic medications
• B. Pericardial tamponade
• C. Neurogenic bladder
• D. Polycystic kidney disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A prerenal condition is one that causes reduced urinary elimination by affecting the blood flow to the kidneys. Pericardial tamponade is a condition that impacts the heart's ability to pump sufficient blood, leading to decreased blood flow to vital organs such as the kidneys. This reduction in blood flow to the kidneys can result in decreased urine production. The other choices, such as nephrotoxic medications, neurogenic bladder, and polycystic kidney disease, do not primarily affect the blood flow to the kidneys and are not classified as prerenal conditions that impact urinary elimination.

4. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage IV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

5. The nursing diagnosis is Risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility and pressure secondary to pain and presence of a cast. Which of the following desired outcomes should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Client will be able to turn self by day 3
• B. Skin will remain intact and without redness during hospital stay
• C. Client will state pain relieved within 30 minutes after medication
• D. Pressure will be prevented by repositioning client every 2 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct desired outcome for a nursing diagnosis of 'Risk for impaired skin integrity' is to ensure that the skin remains intact and without redness during the hospital stay. This outcome directly addresses the risk identified in the diagnosis. Option A focuses on addressing immobility, which is not the priority for this diagnosis. Option C deals with pain relief, which is a separate concern. Option D is an intervention involving pressure prevention through repositioning, rather than an outcome related to skin integrity.

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