Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

• A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
• B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
• C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
• D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

2. The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the following four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 23-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled
• B. A 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath
• C. A 77-year-old patient with tuberculosis (TB) who has four antitubercular medications due in 15 minutes
• D. A 35-year-old patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia and has a temperature of 100.2 F (37.8 C)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath. Patients on bed rest who are immobile are at high risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sudden onset of shortness of breath in a patient with a DVT suggests a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and action such as oxygen administration to maintain adequate oxygenation. The other patients should also be assessed as soon as possible, but they do not present with an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent intervention like the patient experiencing sudden shortness of breath.

3. When checking for proper blood pressure cuff size, which guideline is correct?

• A. The standard cuff size is appropriate for all sizes.
• B. The length of the rubber bladder should equal 80% of the arm circumference.
• C. The width of the rubber bladder should equal 80% of the arm circumference.
• D. The width of the rubber bladder should equal 40% of the arm circumference.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When selecting the correct blood pressure cuff size, it is essential to ensure that the width of the rubber bladder equals 40% of the circumference of the person's arm. This ensures proper fitting and accurate readings. The length of the bladder should actually equal 80% of the arm circumference, not 80% of the width, making choices B and C incorrect. Choice A stating that the standard cuff size is appropriate for all sizes is inaccurate, as using an incorrectly sized cuff can lead to inaccurate blood pressure readings.

4. An experienced healthcare professional instructs a new colleague on caring for a patient with dyspnea due to a pulmonary fungal infection. Which action by the new colleague indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. Listening to the patient's lung sounds several times during the shift
• B. Placing the patient in droplet precautions and in a private hospital room
• C. Increasing the oxygen flow rate to maintain oxygen saturation above 90%
• D. Monitoring the patient's serology results to identify the specific infecting organism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is placing the patient in droplet precautions and in a private hospital room. Fungal infections are not transmitted from person to person, so isolation procedures like droplet precautions are unnecessary. Listening to the patient's lung sounds, increasing the oxygen flow rate, and monitoring serology results are all appropriate actions in caring for a patient with dyspnea caused by a pulmonary fungal infection.

5. Which of the following scenarios provides an example of a healthcare professional overcoming a barrier to communication?

• A. A healthcare professional uses a visual aid to explain how to conduct a fingerstick glucose test to a patient with visual impairment.
• B. A healthcare professional writes down instructions for a patient who is hearing impaired.
• C. A healthcare professional raises their voice when speaking to a patient who does not speak English.
• D. A healthcare professional uses medical jargon while conversing with a minor.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Overcoming barriers to communication in healthcare involves utilizing methods of communication that are accessible and understandable to the recipient. In the scenario provided, writing down instructions for a patient who is hearing impaired is an effective way to ensure clear communication and overcome the obstacle of hearing impairment. This method allows the patient to visually comprehend the information provided. Choice A is incorrect because using a visual aid for a visually impaired patient, not a hearing-impaired patient, would be more appropriate. Choice C is incorrect as raising one's voice does not address the language barrier effectively and may not enhance understanding. Choice D is incorrect as using complex medical terms with a minor may lead to confusion and hinder effective communication.

Similar Questions