which of the following statements best describes footdrop
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NCLEX RN Exam Prep

1. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

2. The nurse is developing a plan of care for an infant after surgical intervention for imperforate anus. The nurse should include in the plan that which position is the most appropriate one for the infant in the postoperative period?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate position for an infant after surgical intervention for imperforate anus is the prone position. Placing the infant in a prone position helps keep the hips elevated, reducing edema and pressure on the surgical site. This position promotes optimal healing and comfort for the infant. Option B, supine with no head elevation, does not provide the necessary elevation to reduce pressure on the surgical site. Option C, side-lying with the legs extended, does not offer the same benefits as the prone position in terms of reducing pressure on the surgical site. Option D, supine with the head elevated 45 degrees, does not specifically address the need for hip elevation to prevent pressure on the surgical site. Therefore, the correct choice is the prone position for this postoperative care scenario.

3. When examining an older adult, which technique should the nurse use?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When examining an older adult, it is crucial to arrange the sequence of the examination to minimize position changes. This helps prevent discomfort and fatigue for the older adult, who may have mobility issues. Option A is incorrect because physical touch is essential when examining older adults, as their other senses may be diminished. Option B is incorrect as it is better to break the examination into multiple visits to ensure thoroughness and comfort. Option C is incorrect because while some older adults may have hearing deficits, it is not appropriate to assume this for all individuals without proper assessment.

4. Which bloodborne pathogen is the most virulent? (Choose the BEST answer.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is HCV (Hepatitis C Virus). Hepatitis C is considered the most virulent bloodborne pathogen, being 100 times more virulent than Hepatitis B. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) is a sexually transmitted infection but is not a bloodborne pathogen. HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) affects the immune system but is not as virulent as Hepatitis C in terms of bloodborne transmission. HBV (Hepatitis B Virus) is less virulent compared to HCV in the context of bloodborne transmission.

5. The healthcare professional is preparing to percuss the abdomen of a patient. What characteristic of the underlying tissue does percussion assess?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Percussion is a technique used to assess the density of underlying organs by producing sounds that help determine their location and size. Turgor, texture, and consistency are primarily assessed through palpation, not percussion. Turgor refers to skin elasticity, texture pertains to the feel of the tissue surface, and consistency relates to the firmness or resistance of the tissue.

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