Nursing Elites

1. According to the American Heart Association standards, high-quality CPR for an adult includes all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Push hard
• B. Push fast
• C. Allow chest recoil between compressions
• D. Pause CPR as each drug is administered

Correct answer: D

Rationale: High-quality CPR for adults should not be paused for drug administration. The correct CPR technique involves pushing hard and fast, at a rate of at least 100 compressions per minute and to a depth of at least 2 inches. It is also essential to allow chest recoil between compressions to enable proper blood circulation. Pausing CPR for drug administration would delay the delivery of continuous chest compressions, which are crucial for maintaining blood flow and oxygenation during cardiac arrest.

2. When caring for a single client during one shift, it is appropriate for the nurse to reuse only which of the following personal protective equipment?

• A. Goggles
• B. Gown
• C. Surgical mask
• D. Clean gloves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Goggles may be reused unless they are overly contaminated by material that has splashed in the nurse's face and cannot be effectively rinsed off. Gowns are at high risk for contamination and should be used only once and then discarded or washed. Surgical masks and gloves should never be washed or reused. Goggles provide eye protection from splashes and should be cleaned and disinfected after each use to ensure proper protection.

3. The UAP who has just been accepted to nursing school says to a client, 'You must be so pleased with your progress.' The nurse later explains to the UAP that this is an example of what type of question?

• A. Close-ended question
• B. Open-ended question
• C. Leading question
• D. Neutral question

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The statement 'You must be so pleased with your progress' is an example of a leading question. Leading questions guide the respondent towards a particular answer or response, potentially biasing the data collected. In this scenario, the UAP's question implies that the client should be pleased with their progress, steering the client's response. Closed-ended questions typically elicit brief factual responses or a 'yes' or 'no.' Open-ended questions encourage clients to provide detailed responses and share their thoughts and feelings freely. Neutral questions do not lead or influence the client's response, allowing for unbiased information gathering.

4. A urine pregnancy test:

• A. May be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive.
• B. Is positive only during the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. Will be negative if the amount of LH isn't enough to meet or exceed the sensitivity of the testing device.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine pregnancy test detects HCG in a pregnant woman's urine. Blood levels of HCG are usually higher and register earlier than HCG levels in the urine. Choice A is correct because urine pregnancy tests may be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive due to the differences in HCG levels in blood and urine. Choice B is incorrect because a urine pregnancy test can be positive throughout pregnancy, not just in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect because LH (luteinizing hormone) is not the hormone detected in a pregnancy test; it is HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). Choice D is incorrect because not all the statements provided are true.

5. The healthcare professional is preparing to percuss the abdomen of a patient. What characteristic of the underlying tissue does percussion assess?

• A. Turgor
• B. Texture
• C. Density
• D. Consistency

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Percussion is a technique used to assess the density of underlying organs by producing sounds that help determine their location and size. Turgor, texture, and consistency are primarily assessed through palpation, not percussion. Turgor refers to skin elasticity, texture pertains to the feel of the tissue surface, and consistency relates to the firmness or resistance of the tissue.

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