Nursing Elites

1. According to the American Heart Association standards, high-quality CPR for an adult includes all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Push hard
• B. Push fast
• C. Allow chest recoil between compressions
• D. Pause CPR as each drug is administered

Correct answer: D

Rationale: High-quality CPR for adults should not be paused for drug administration. The correct CPR technique involves pushing hard and fast, at a rate of at least 100 compressions per minute and to a depth of at least 2 inches. It is also essential to allow chest recoil between compressions to enable proper blood circulation. Pausing CPR for drug administration would delay the delivery of continuous chest compressions, which are crucial for maintaining blood flow and oxygenation during cardiac arrest.

2. A client on the nursing unit is terminally ill but remains alert and oriented. Three days after admission, the nurse observes signs of depression. The client states, 'I'm tired of being sick. I wish I could end it all.' What is the most accurate and informative way to record this data in a nursing progress note?

• A. Client appears to be depressed, possibly suicidal
• B. Client reports being tired of being ill and wants to die
• C. Client does not want to live any longer and is tired of being ill
• D. Client states, 'I'm tired of being sick. I wish I could end it all.'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Subjective data includes thoughts, beliefs, feelings, perceptions, and sensations that are apparent only to the person affected and cannot be measured, seen, or felt by the nurse. This information should be documented using the client's exact words in quotes. The other options indicate that the nurse has drawn the conclusion that the client no longer wishes to live. From the data provided, the cues do not support this assumption. A more complete assessment should be conducted to determine if the client is suicidal.

3. During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns about the following four patients. Which patient requires assessment first?

• A. 40-year-old with chronic pancreatitis who has gnawing abdominal pain
• B. 58-year-old who has compensated cirrhosis and is complaining of anorexia
• C. 55-year-old with cirrhosis and ascites who has an oral temperature of 102�F (38.8�C)
• D. 36-year-old recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has severe shoulder pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prioritizing patient assessments, the nurse should address the patient with cirrhosis and ascites who has an elevated oral temperature of 102�F (38.8�C) first. This presentation suggests a potential infection, which is critical to address promptly in a patient with liver disease. An infection in a patient with cirrhosis can quickly progress to severe complications. The other options, such as chronic pancreatitis with abdominal pain, compensated cirrhosis with anorexia, and post-laparoscopic cholecystectomy with shoulder pain, do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation requiring urgent assessment compared to a possible infection in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites.

4. A client is suspected of having carbon monoxide poisoning. Which of the following symptoms are associated with this condition?

• A. Red rash across the trunk and extremities
• B. Nausea, vomiting, seizures
• C. Flushing of the face and neck
• D. Abdominal pain radiating to the back

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nausea, vomiting, seizures.' Carbon monoxide poisoning can present with symptoms such as headache, dizziness, weakness, nausea, vomiting, and confusion. Severe cases can progress to seizures, coma, and even death. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize these symptoms promptly to initiate appropriate treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a red rash, flushing of the face and neck, and abdominal pain radiating to the back are not typically associated with carbon monoxide poisoning. It is essential to be aware of the common manifestations of carbon monoxide poisoning to ensure timely intervention and prevent adverse outcomes.

5. What is the proper personal protective equipment necessary for collecting a sputum specimen?

• A. Gloves and face mask
• B. Level Three Biocontainment uniforms
• C. Eye protection and shoe covers
• D. Splash shield and face mask

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When collecting a sputum specimen, it is crucial to protect against potential airborne droplets that may spread disease. The best personal protective equipment for this task includes gloves and a face mask. Gloves help prevent the spread of contaminants through hand contact, while a face mask protects the respiratory tract from inhaling infectious agents. Choice B, Level Three Biocontainment uniforms, is excessive and unnecessary for routine sputum specimen collection. Choice C, eye protection and shoe covers, does not address the specific risks associated with sputum collection. Choice D, splash shield and face mask, provides additional protection that is not typically required for sputum specimen collection, making it less appropriate than gloves and a face mask.

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