Nursing Elites

1. Which type of shock is related to low blood volume?

• A. Psychogenic
• B. Cardiogenic
• C. Anaphylactic
• D. Hemorrhagic

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hemorrhagic shock, also known as hypovolemic shock, is directly related to low blood volume due to significant blood loss. In hemorrhagic shock, the body's circulating blood volume is reduced, leading to inadequate perfusion of tissues and organs. Psychogenic shock is caused by emotional distress, not blood volume changes. Cardiogenic shock results from heart failure, not low blood volume. Anaphylactic shock is due to a severe allergic reaction, not a reduction in blood volume.

2. The client is being discharged to a long-term care (LTC) facility. The nurse is preparing a progress note to communicate to the LTC staff the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not. To do this effectively, the nurse should:

• A. Formulate post-discharge nursing diagnoses
• B. Draw conclusion about resolution of current client problems
• C. Assess the client for baseline data to be used at the LTC facility
• D. Plan the care that is needed in the LTC facility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To effectively communicate the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not to the LTC staff, the nurse should draw conclusions about the resolution of the current client problems. Terminal evaluation is performed to determine the client's condition at discharge, focusing on which goals were achieved and which were not. Formulating post-discharge nursing diagnoses (option A) is not the most appropriate action in this scenario as it focuses on identifying potential problems after discharge rather than evaluating achieved goals. Assessing the client for baseline data (option C) is not necessary at this point as the focus is on evaluating outcomes rather than collecting baseline data. Planning the care needed in the LTC facility (option D) is premature as this should be done on admission to the LTC facility and not during the discharge process.

3. What is the MOST ACCURATE statement regarding the ESR test?

• A. The results are diagnostic for certain conditions.
• B. Abnormal results are indicative of a potentially fatal illness.
• C. Abnormal results should be followed by additional testing.
• D. Results are reported in millimeters per hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a non-specific screening test for inflammation in the body. It is not used as a definitive diagnostic tool for specific conditions. When ESR results are abnormal, they indicate the presence of inflammation, which can be caused by various reasons. Therefore, abnormal results should be followed by additional testing to determine the underlying cause. The ESR test measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a vertical tube over the span of one hour, and results are reported in millimeters per hour. Choice A is incorrect because ESR results are not solely diagnostic for any specific condition. Choice B is incorrect as abnormal ESR results do not directly indicate a potentially fatal illness without further investigation. Choice D is incorrect as the results are reported in millimeters per hour, not per minute.

4. What term is used to refer to generalized wasting of body tissues and malnutrition?

• A. Entropion
• B. Confabulation
• C. Induration
• D. Cachexia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cachexia is the correct term used to describe the generalized wasting of body tissues, ill health, and malnutrition associated with some chronic diseases. It involves a loss of fat tissue to protect the bones and joints. Clients with cachexia are at risk of pressure ulcers and other complications due to malnutrition and poor health. Entropion refers to an eyelid condition, confabulation is a memory disturbance, and induration is the abnormal hardening of a part of the body.

5. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage IV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

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