NCLEX NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Which of the following puts the layers of skin in the correct order from right to left?
- A. Dermis, epidermis, hypodermis
- B. Hypodermis, epidermis, dermis
- C. Epidermis, dermis, hypodermis
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: Epidermis, dermis, hypodermis
Rationale: The correct order of the layers of skin from outermost to innermost is the epidermis, dermis, and then the hypodermis. The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin, followed by the dermis, which is the middle layer containing connective tissue, hair follicles, and sweat glands. The hypodermis, also known as the subcutaneous tissue, lies beneath the dermis and consists of fat and connective tissue. Choice A is incorrect as it lists the layers in the reverse order. Choice B is incorrect as it reverses the order of the layers. Choice D is incorrect as there is a correct answer among the choices.
2. The nurse is preparing to assess a hospitalized patient who is experiencing significant shortness of breath. How should the nurse proceed with the assessment?
- A. Have the patient lie down to obtain an accurate cardiac, respiratory, and abdominal assessment.
- B. Obtain a thorough history and physical assessment from the patient’s family member.
- C. Immediately perform a complete history and physical assessment to obtain baseline information.
- D. Examine the body areas relevant to the problem and complete the rest of the assessment after the problem has resolved.
Correct answer: Examine the body areas relevant to the problem and complete the rest of the assessment after the problem has resolved.
Rationale: When assessing a patient experiencing significant shortness of breath, it is crucial to prioritize the evaluation of areas directly related to the problem. Having the patient lie down may exacerbate the breathing difficulty. Therefore, the nurse should focus on examining the body areas pertinent to the issue, such as the respiratory and cardiac systems. Completing the rest of the assessment can be deferred until after addressing the immediate problem. Obtaining a complete history or involving family members should come after addressing the acute issue to ensure the patient's safety and comfort.
3. Which practice will help reduce the risk of a needlestick injury?
- A. Expose the end of the needle only when ready to enter the room for the procedure
- B. Never recap a needle after use
- C. Keep a sharps container nearby where it can be easily accessed
- D. Exchange needles from a central area rather than passing them between workers
Correct answer: Keep a sharps container nearby where it can be easily accessed
Rationale: To reduce the risk of a needlestick injury, it is essential to keep a sharps container nearby where it can be easily accessed. This practice ensures quick and safe disposal of needles after use, minimizing the chances of accidental needlesticks. Recapping needles should be avoided as it increases the risk of injuries. Passing needles between workers should also be avoided to prevent accidental needle pricks during handovers. Therefore, the best practice to prevent needlestick injuries is to maintain a sharps container nearby for safe and immediate disposal of needles.
4. A client is in her third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?
- A. Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening
- B. Perform tests for sexually transmitted diseases
- C. Discuss her high risk for cervical cancer
- D. Refer the client to a family planning clinic
Correct answer: Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening
Rationale: Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening. The client's behavior places her at high risk for HIV. Testing is the first step in identifying and managing the risk of HIV infection. Early detection allows for timely interventions and better outcomes. While performing tests for sexually transmitted diseases (choice B) is important, addressing the immediate and potentially life-threatening risk of HIV takes precedence. Discussing the risk for cervical cancer (choice C) is not the priority at this time as HIV screening is more urgent. Referring the client to a family planning clinic (choice D) is not the immediate priority given the client's current high-risk behavior and the need to address the immediate threat of HIV infection.
5. What is the MOST ACCURATE statement regarding the ESR test?
- A. The results are diagnostic for certain conditions.
- B. Abnormal results are indicative of a potentially fatal illness.
- C. Abnormal results should be followed by additional testing.
- D. Results are reported in millimeters per hour.
Correct answer: Abnormal results should be followed by additional testing.
Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a non-specific screening test for inflammation in the body. It is not used as a definitive diagnostic tool for specific conditions. When ESR results are abnormal, they indicate the presence of inflammation, which can be caused by various reasons. Therefore, abnormal results should be followed by additional testing to determine the underlying cause. The ESR test measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a vertical tube over the span of one hour, and results are reported in millimeters per hour. Choice A is incorrect because ESR results are not solely diagnostic for any specific condition. Choice B is incorrect as abnormal ESR results do not directly indicate a potentially fatal illness without further investigation. Choice D is incorrect as the results are reported in millimeters per hour, not per minute.
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