Nursing Elites

1. A patient’s blood pressure is 118/82 mm Hg. The patient asks the nurse, “What do the numbers mean?” Which is the best reply by the nurse?

• A. “The numbers are within the normal range and are nothing to worry about.”
• B. “The bottom number is the diastolic pressure and reflects the pressure in the arteries when the heart relaxes.”
• C. “The top number is the systolic blood pressure and reflects the pressure of the blood against the arteries when the heart contracts.”
• D. “The concept of blood pressure can be complex. The primary thing to be concerned about is the top number, or the systolic blood pressure.”

Correct answer: “The top number is the systolic blood pressure and reflects the pressure of the blood against the arteries when the heart contracts.”

Rationale: The systolic pressure is the maximum pressure felt on the artery during left ventricular contraction, or systole. The diastolic pressure is the elastic recoil, or resting, pressure that the blood constantly exerts in between each contraction. The nurse should answer the patient’s question in terms they can understand and not just say it is normal and there is nothing to worry about. The diastolic pressure is the pressure in the vessels when the heart is at rest, not the stroke volume. Both the systolic and diastolic blood pressure are important. Choice A is incorrect as providing a vague reassurance does not address the patient's query. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the diastolic pressure as reflecting stroke volume, which is incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as it oversimplifies the explanation, focusing solely on the top number without providing a complete understanding of blood pressure.

2. When preparing a patient on complete bed rest to eat, at what degree angle or more should you put the head of the bed up?

• A. 10
• B. 15
• C. 20
• D. 30

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 30. When a patient is on complete bed rest, it is essential to elevate the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle or more before meals. This position helps prevent choking and aspiration of food during eating by promoting proper swallowing and digestion. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal elevation needed to support safe and effective feeding for a patient on complete bed rest.

3. According to the American Heart Association standards, high-quality CPR for an adult includes all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Push hard
• B. Push fast
• C. Allow chest recoil between compressions
• D. Pause CPR as each drug is administered

Correct answer: Pause CPR as each drug is administered

Rationale: High-quality CPR for adults should not be paused for drug administration. The correct CPR technique involves pushing hard and fast, at a rate of at least 100 compressions per minute and to a depth of at least 2 inches. It is also essential to allow chest recoil between compressions to enable proper blood circulation. Pausing CPR for drug administration would delay the delivery of continuous chest compressions, which are crucial for maintaining blood flow and oxygenation during cardiac arrest.

4. A urine pregnancy test:

• A. May be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive.
• B. Is positive only during the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. Will be negative if the amount of LH isn't enough to meet or exceed the sensitivity of the testing device.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: May be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive.

Rationale: A urine pregnancy test detects HCG in a pregnant woman's urine. Blood levels of HCG are usually higher and register earlier than HCG levels in the urine. Choice A is correct because urine pregnancy tests may be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive due to the differences in HCG levels in blood and urine. Choice B is incorrect because a urine pregnancy test can be positive throughout pregnancy, not just in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect because LH (luteinizing hormone) is not the hormone detected in a pregnancy test; it is HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). Choice D is incorrect because not all the statements provided are true.

5. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 3-year-old patient who appears to have an irregular respiratory pattern. How would the nurse assess this child’s respirations?

• A. Respirations should be counted for 1 full minute.
• B. Child’s pulse and respirations should be simultaneously checked for 30 seconds and then multiplied by 2.
• C. Child’s respirations should be checked for a minimum of 5 minutes to identify any variations in his or her respiratory pattern.
• D. Patient’s respirations should be counted for 15 seconds and then multiplied by 4.

Correct answer: Respirations should be counted for 1 full minute.

Rationale: To accurately assess a child's respiratory pattern, the nurse should count respirations for a full minute. This duration provides a comprehensive view of the child's breathing pattern, ensuring abnormalities are not missed. Counting for only 30 seconds may not capture irregularities effectively. Checking respirations for 5 minutes is excessive and unnecessary for a routine assessment. Counting for 15 seconds and multiplying by 4 is not as precise as a full-minute count. Pulse and respirations should not be checked simultaneously; instead, the nurse should count respirations unobtrusively while appearing to take the child's pulse. Therefore, the correct approach is to count the child's respirations for 1 full minute to obtain an accurate assessment.

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