NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. The nurse is caring for a newborn infant after surgical intervention for imperforate anus. The nurse should place the infant in which position in the postoperative period?
- A. Supine with no head elevation
- B. Side-lying with the legs flexed
- C. Side-lying with the legs extended
- D. Supine with the head elevated 30 degrees
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After surgical intervention for imperforate anus, the infant should be placed in a side-lying position with the legs flexed. This position helps reduce edema and pressure on the surgical site, preventing strain and promoting comfort. Placing the infant supine with no head elevation (Choice A) doesn't offer adequate support and may increase pressure on the area. Side-lying with the legs extended (Choice C) doesn't help reduce edema and pressure effectively. Placing the infant supine with the head elevated 30 degrees (Choice D) isn't recommended as it may not provide adequate support and comfort needed for recovery.
2. A patient asks a nurse administering blood how long red blood cells live in the body. What is the correct response?
- A. The life span of RBC is 45 days
- B. The life span of RBC is 60 days
- C. The life span of RBC is 90 days
- D. The life span of RBC is 120 days
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that red blood cells have a lifespan of 120 days in the body. This allows for efficient oxygen transport throughout the circulatory system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the lifespan of red blood cells is actually 120 days. Understanding the lifespan of red blood cells is crucial in assessing various conditions related to blood cell production and turnover.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to palpate and percuss a patient's abdomen as part of the assessment process. Which of these findings would cause the healthcare professional to immediately discontinue this part of the assessment?
- A. The patient states, 'That sounds like it might hurt me.'
- B. There is a pulsating mass on the upper middle abdomen.
- C. The patient has black, tarry stools and anemia.
- D. The patient has had an endoscopic procedure two days prior.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A pulsating mass on the upper middle abdomen is indicative of a life-threatening aortic aneurysm. Palpating or percussing such an area can potentially cause the aneurysm to rupture, leading to severe internal bleeding and endangering the patient's life. Therefore, the healthcare professional should immediately discontinue the assessment to prevent any harm.\nChoice A is incorrect because the patient expressing concerns about the procedure does not necessarily indicate a life-threatening condition. Choice C describes symptoms that should be further investigated but do not pose an immediate threat during abdominal assessment. Choice D, a prior endoscopic procedure, is not a contraindication for palpation or percussion of the abdomen unless there are specific complications or conditions related to the procedure that would require caution.
4. A female patient is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status pending a diagnostic test. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of metformin?
- A. Diarrhea and Vomiting
- B. Dizziness and Drowsiness
- C. Metallic taste
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypoglycemia.' When a patient is on NPO status (nothing by mouth) and prescribed metformin, there is an increased risk of hypoglycemia due to the absence of oral intake. Metformin, as an anti-glycemic drug, can lower blood sugar levels, and without food intake, the risk of hypoglycemia is higher. Diarrhea and vomiting are common gastrointestinal side effects of metformin but are not the main concern in this scenario. Dizziness and drowsiness are potential side effects of some medications but are not typically associated with metformin. Metallic taste is a known side effect of metformin but is not the primary concern in this situation where hypoglycemia is more critical to monitor due to the patient's NPO status.
5. The patient in the emergency room has a history of alprazolam (Xanax) abuse and abruptly stopped taking Xanax about 24 hours ago. He presents with visible tremors, pacing, fear, impaired concentration, and memory. Which intervention takes priority?
- A. Have the patient lie down on a stretcher with bed rails raised
- B. Offer the patient a cup of water and a small amount of food
- C. Reassure the patient about his well-being
- D. Inform the physician about the patient's Xanax withdrawal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The 1-4 day period after Xanax withdrawal is critical as it poses the highest risk of life-threatening seizures. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and sudden cessation can lead to severe withdrawal symptoms. The patient's visible tremors, fear, pacing, and cognitive impairment indicate a state of heightened distress and potential seizure risk. Placing the patient on a stretcher with raised bed rails is essential for seizure precautions, ensuring safety and preventing injury during a potential seizure. Offering water and food, reassuring the patient, or informing the physician about Xanax withdrawal are not immediate priorities compared to managing the risk of seizures in this high-risk situation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access