NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. The nurse is caring for a newborn infant after surgical intervention for imperforate anus. The nurse should place the infant in which position in the postoperative period?
- A. Supine with no head elevation
- B. Side-lying with the legs flexed
- C. Side-lying with the legs extended
- D. Supine with the head elevated 30 degrees
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After surgical intervention for imperforate anus, the infant should be placed in a side-lying position with the legs flexed. This position helps reduce edema and pressure on the surgical site, preventing strain and promoting comfort. Placing the infant supine with no head elevation (Choice A) doesn't offer adequate support and may increase pressure on the area. Side-lying with the legs extended (Choice C) doesn't help reduce edema and pressure effectively. Placing the infant supine with the head elevated 30 degrees (Choice D) isn't recommended as it may not provide adequate support and comfort needed for recovery.
2. A 4-year-old hospitalized child begins to have a seizure while playing with hard plastic toys in the hallway. Of the following nursing actions, which one should the nurse do first?
- A. Place the child in the nearest bed
- B. Administer IV medication to slow down the seizure
- C. Place a padded tongue blade in the child's mouth
- D. Remove the child's toys from the immediate area
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a seizure, the priority nursing actions are to ensure the safety of the child and maintain airway patency. Placing objects in the child's mouth, like a padded tongue blade, is not recommended as it can lead to injury or obstruction of the airway. Moving the child to a bed is also not the immediate priority during a seizure. Administering IV medication to slow down the seizure is not typically done as the initial action. Therefore, the correct first nursing action is to remove any potential hazards, such as the hard plastic toys, from the immediate area to prevent injury during the seizure.
3. A patient who has a right-sided chest tube following a thoracotomy has continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber of the collection device. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Document the presence of continuous bubbling.
- B. Notify the surgeon of a possible pneumothorax.
- C. Take no further action with the collection device.
- D. Adjust the dial on the wall regulator to decrease suction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber of the chest tube collection device is an expected finding and indicates that the suction control chamber is connected to suction. It does not necessarily indicate a large air leak, which would be detected in the water-seal chamber. There is no evidence to suggest a pneumothorax based solely on continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber. Adjusting the suction level by changing the wall regulator setting is not indicated in this situation, as the amount of suction applied is primarily regulated by the water level in the water-seal chamber and not by the vacuum source. Therefore, the most appropriate action in this scenario is for the nurse to take no further action with the collection device.
4. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for a stroke?
- A. A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
- B. A 75-year-old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic
- C. A 40-year-old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives
- D. A 65-year-old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease, and smokes cigarettes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old male who has a combination of significant risk factors for stroke, including atrial fibrillation, a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), and obesity. These factors greatly increase his risk of stroke. While other choices may have some individual risk factors, they do not collectively pose as high a risk as the patient described in option A. Option B includes migraines and alcohol consumption but lacks other major risk factors seen in option A. Option C mentions high cholesterol and oral contraceptives, which are risk factors but not as significant as atrial fibrillation and a prior TIA. Option D includes smoking and sickle cell disease but lacks the crucial risk factors present in option A.
5. When assessing a child admitted to the hospital with pyloric stenosis, which symptom would the nurse likely find when asking the parent about the child's symptoms?
- A. Watery diarrhea
- B. Projectile vomiting
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Vomiting large amounts of bile
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In pyloric stenosis, hypertrophy of the circular muscles of the pylorus causes narrowing of the pyloric canal between the stomach and the duodenum. The hallmark symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which is the forceful expulsion of stomach contents. Other common symptoms include irritability, hunger and crying, constipation, and signs of dehydration. Watery diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical symptom of pyloric stenosis. Increased urine output (Choice C) is not directly associated with this condition. Vomiting large amounts of bile (Choice D) is not a characteristic symptom of pyloric stenosis; instead, the vomitus in pyloric stenosis is non-bilious.
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