Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of libel?

• A. A client overhears a nurse telling her assistant that he is 'too high maintenance.'
• B. A client reads disparaging remarks that a nurse has written about him in his chart.
• C. A nurse fails to notify a physician when a client's hemoglobin level is 8.1 gm/dL.
• D. A nurse administers narcotic pain medication to a client in pain but does not have an order.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Libel involves making defamatory statements against another person in written form. These statements can harm the person's reputation or feelings. In this scenario, the correct answer is when a client reads disparaging remarks that a nurse has written about him in his chart. This constitutes libel because the negative remarks are written down and can potentially damage the client's reputation. Choices A, C, and D do not involve libel. Choice A describes a verbal statement, not written, so it does not constitute libel. Choice C involves a failure to notify a physician, which is a different issue unrelated to libel. Choice D pertains to administering medication without an order, which is a matter of improper practice rather than libel.

2. A client in labor has an electronic fetal monitor attached to the abdomen, and the nurse notes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction, returning to normal limits only after the contraction is complete. Which type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?

• A. Variable decelerations
• B. Late decelerations
• C. Early decelerations
• D. Accelerations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations refer to a pattern where the baby's heart rate decreases during contractions and does not return to normal until after the contraction ends. This is considered a non-reassuring sign as it indicates potential fetal distress. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, and immediate medical attention is required. Variable decelerations (Choice A) are abrupt, unpredictable decreases in the fetal heart rate, usually associated with cord compression. Early decelerations (Choice C) are usually benign and mirror the contraction pattern. Accelerations (Choice D) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, characterized by an increase in the fetal heart rate.

3. Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?

• A. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
• B. First-generation antipsychotic drugs
• C. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs
• D. Dopamine system stabilizers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.

4. When planning care for an uninsured diabetic patient, which strategy should be a priority?

• A. Obtain less expensive medications
• B. Follow evidence-based practice guidelines
• C. Assist with dietary changes as the first action
• D. Teach about the impact of exercise on diabetes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority when planning care for an uninsured diabetic patient should be to follow evidence-based practice guidelines. By adhering to standardized evidence-based guidelines, the nurse can help reduce healthcare disparities among different socioeconomic groups. While obtaining less expensive medications and assisting with dietary changes are important, the primary concern should be providing care that aligns with established standards of practice. Teaching about the impact of exercise is also valuable but may not be the priority when immediate care planning for an uninsured patient is considered.

5. A client has a right-sided chest tube with 50 cc of serosanguinous fluid in the collection chamber and air bubbles are collecting in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this time?

• A. Do nothing; this is a normal response
• B. Strip the tubing to remove any clots
• C. Place a clamp on the tube near the client's chest
• D. Remove the collection chamber and connect the tubing to a new device

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The water seal of a chest tube acts as a one-way valve. Air bubbles in the water seal indicate a leak between the client and the chamber. The nurse should briefly clamp the tube near the client's chest to locate the source of the leak. Once identified, the nurse should unclamp the tubing and notify the physician immediately. Choice A is incorrect because air bubbles in the water seal chamber are not a normal finding and indicate a leak. Choice B is incorrect as stripping the tubing could aggravate the issue and is not the initial appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to locate and address the leak.

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