NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?
- A. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat
- B. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting
- C. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements
- D. Lack of menstruation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.
2. Which statement by an 8-year-old girl, who was just admitted to the hospital, needs to be explored?
- A. ''Wow! This hospital has bright colors.''
- B. ''Is my mother allowed to visit me tonight?'
- C. ''Those boys are so cute. I hope their room is next to mine!'
- D. ''I'm scared about being here. Can you stay with me awhile?'
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. An 8-year-old child showing a strong attraction to boys at this age may raise concerns about precocious sexual behavior or exposure to inappropriate sexual content, potentially signaling the need to investigate for possible sexual abuse. It is important to explore this statement further. Choice A, expressing admiration for bright colors, is a common behavior for children of this age and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice B, inquiring about the mother's visit, is a typical concern for a hospitalized child seeking comfort and support. Choice D, expressing fear and seeking reassurance from the nurse, is also a normal reaction for an 8-year-old in a new and possibly intimidating environment. However, the statement in Choice C stands out as it deviates from age-appropriate behavior and warrants further exploration to ensure the child's safety and well-being.
3. A 9-year-old boy is told that he must stay in the hospital for at least 2 weeks. The nurse finds him crying and unwilling to talk. What is the priority nursing care at this time?
- A. Assuring him that his illness is not permanent
- B. Distracting him to prevent further embarrassment
- C. Arranging for him to receive tutoring immediately
- D. Providing privacy to allow him to express his feelings
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority nursing care for a 9-year-old child who is crying and unwilling to talk in the hospital is to provide privacy to allow him to express his feelings. Children need an opportunity to express their emotions in private, and talking about their feelings can be therapeutic. Assurances about the illness not being permanent may not be the child's primary concern at this moment. Distracting the child could give the impression that crying is wrong. Arranging tutoring does not address the immediate emotional needs of the child.
4. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?
- A. Olanzapine
- B. Meperidine
- C. Ziprasidone
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.
5. Which of the following is an example of neurofeedback used with a child diagnosed with reactive attachment disorder (RAD)?
- A. A child's brain waves are monitored through electrodes placed on the scalp
- B. Parents give their child a sticker when he behaves appropriately
- C. A child uses a sand tray to draw shapes and release stress while talking with a nurse
- D. Parents or a nurse hold a child close during play until he becomes angry enough to unleash his rage
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Neurofeedback is a form of treatment that may be used for children diagnosed with reactive attachment disorder (RAD). Neurofeedback involves attaching electrodes to the scalp in a method similar to an EEG. The child's brainwaves are then monitored while being exposed to positive images or games to produce positive brain patterns. Choice A is the correct answer as it describes the process of neurofeedback, which is a common therapeutic approach for managing RAD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly involve monitoring brain waves through electrodes to provide feedback for brain pattern adjustments, which is the core concept of neurofeedback therapy.
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