NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?
- A. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat
- B. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting
- C. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements
- D. Lack of menstruation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.
2. A client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Inform the client that the blood pressure is high and compare the reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings for accuracy.
- B. Contact the health care provider to report the reading and obtain a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
- C. Replace the cuff with a larger one to ensure a proper fit for the client and increase arm comfort during blood pressure measurement.
- D. Compare the current reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg is to compare the current reading with the client's previously documented readings. This comparison helps determine whether the current reading is abnormal for the client. Option A, which involves informing the client that the blood pressure is high and comparing it with the previous readings, is appropriate as it educates the client and aids in accurate assessment. Option B, contacting the health care provider for medication, is premature without further assessment. Option C, replacing the cuff with a larger one, is incorrect as it may affect the accuracy of the blood pressure measurement and is not a standard practice for managing high blood pressure readings.
3. Which response would the nurse make when a client moans softly, 'Oh no, I'm next. They couldn't protect him, and they can't protect me,' after learning a recently discharged client committed suicide?
- A. ''The other person was a lot sicker than you are.''
- B. 'You seem to be afraid that you'll hurt yourself.''
- C. 'That was different. He was at home, but you're here.''
- D. 'There's no need to worry. You have a better support system.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse would make the statement, 'You seem to be afraid that you'll hurt yourself.' This response acknowledges the client's emotional distress and opens up the opportunity for the client to discuss their feelings, showing empathy and understanding. Choice A, 'The other person was a lot sicker than you are,' dismisses the client's emotions and fails to address the underlying fear of self-harm. Choice C, 'That was different. He was at home, but you're here,' invalidates the client's concerns and does not encourage further discussion. Choice D, 'There's no need to worry. You have a better support system,' offers false reassurance and does not address the client's expressed fear, missing an opportunity for therapeutic communication.
4. A client recently had an abdominoperineal resection and colostomy. While the nurse changes the dressing, the client states, 'You think that it looks repulsive.' The nurse identifies that the client is using which defense mechanism?
- A. Projection
- B. Sublimation
- C. Compensation
- D. Intellectualization
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Projection. Projection is the defense mechanism where unacceptable feelings and emotions are attributed to others. In this scenario, the client is projecting their own feelings of repulsion onto the nurse. Sublimation involves substituting socially acceptable feelings to replace threatening ones. Compensation refers to overachievement in a different area to cover up a weakness. Intellectualization is the use of mental reasoning to avoid facing emotional aspects of a situation.
5. Which therapeutic technique can the nurse use when an anxious client exhibits pressured and rambling speech?
- A. Touch
- B. Silence
- C. Focusing
- D. Summarizing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Focusing is the appropriate therapeutic technique to use when an anxious client exhibits pressured and rambling speech. By focusing on one specific aspect, the intended meaning is easier to understand and helps the client stay on track. Touch is not recommended in this scenario as it can invade the client's personal space and potentially increase anxiety. Silence may allow the client to continue rambling without addressing the underlying concerns. Summarizing requires the identification and exploration of the client's concerns, which may be challenging when the speech is pressured and disorganized.
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