Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?

• A. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat
• B. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting
• C. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements
• D. Lack of menstruation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.

2. A client arrives at an occupational health clinic after being struck by lightning while working in a truck bed. The client is alert but reports feeling faint. Which assessment will the nurse perform first?

• A. Pulse characteristics
• B. Open airway
• C. Entrance and exit wounds
• D. Cervical spine injury

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing pulse characteristics is the priority in this situation due to the potential impact of lightning as a form of electrical current, which can cause irregular heart rhythms. It is crucial to evaluate the pulse rate and regularity to assess for adequate circulation and potential cardiac issues. Since the client is alert and talking, the airway is likely patent, making assessing the airway less urgent. Entrance and exit wounds and cervical spine injury assessments should follow the evaluation of pulse characteristics to ensure proper circulation and prioritize life-threatening issues first. Checking the pulse first will guide further interventions and help in determining the client's hemodynamic status.

3. Which of the following best describes Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR)?

• A. A client follows the therapist's finger with their eyes while focusing on a negative thought or memory
• B. A client reads a story about a traumatic event and then visualizes the result
• C. A client focuses on a negative thought in their mind while tapping their fingers
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) is a therapeutic approach used to address negative thoughts or traumatic memories, particularly in individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder. During EMDR, the client concentrates on a distressing thought or memory and the associated emotions while engaging in bilateral stimulation, often by moving their eyes back and forth. This bilateral stimulation can involve tracking the therapist's finger or other forms of sensory stimulation. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the core process of EMDR. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not involve the essential components of EMDR, which include eye movements or bilateral stimulation. Choice D is incorrect as EMDR is a specific therapeutic technique and not covered by selecting 'None of the above'.

4. What is the priority nursing action to assist an anxious father in his concern about not bonding with his newborn?

• A. Encouraging the father to participate in a parenting class
• B. Providing time for the father to be alone with and get to know the baby
• C. Offering the father a demonstration on newborn diapering, feeding, and bathing
• D. Allowing time for the father to ask questions after viewing a film about a new baby

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing action to assist an anxious father in his concern about not bonding with his newborn is providing time for the father to be alone with and get to know the baby. Time alone provides the opportunity for paternal-infant attachment and bonding, which can help reduce the father's anxiety. Encouraging the father to participate in a parenting class, although helpful, does not directly address the immediate need for bonding. Offering a demonstration on newborn care tasks like diapering, feeding, and bathing may not effectively address the father's anxiety at that moment, as he may not be ready to absorb such information. Allowing time for the father to ask questions after viewing a film about a new baby is a simplistic approach that may not adequately address the emotional needs and concerns of the father regarding bonding with his newborn.

5. The client with partial-thickness (second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns is at risk of infection. What intervention has the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of infection?

• A. Administration of plasma expanders
• B. Use of careful handwashing technique
• C. Application of a topical antibacterial cream
• D. Limiting visitors to the client with burns

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the use of careful handwashing technique. Proper handwashing is the most effective way to prevent the transmission of infectious organisms. Option A, administration of plasma expanders, addresses hypovolemia in burn patients but does not directly decrease the risk of infection. Option C, application of a topical antibacterial cream, is beneficial but not as effective as proper handwashing in preventing infection. Option D, limiting visitors, may help reduce the risk of exposure to pathogens but is not as critical as ensuring healthcare providers maintain strict hand hygiene, which is the cornerstone of infection control in any healthcare setting.

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