NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?
- A. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat
- B. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting
- C. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements
- D. Lack of menstruation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.
2. The client finds a client crying behind a locked bathroom door. The client will not open the door. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Instruct an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to stay and keep talking to the client.
- B. Sit quietly in the client's room until the client leaves the bathroom.
- C. Allow the client to cry alone and leave the client in the bathroom.
- D. Talk to the client and attempt to find out why the client is crying.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse's first concern should be for the client's safety, so an immediate assessment of the client's situation is needed. Option D is the correct choice as it involves directly addressing the client's emotional state and attempting to understand the reason for the distress. In a vulnerable situation like this, the nurse should take the lead in assessing and communicating with the client. Option A is incorrect as it would delegate the responsibility to someone else when the nurse should be the one to initiate the assessment. Option B is inappropriate as it does not actively address the client's emotional needs or safety. Option C is also incorrect because leaving the client alone without further assessment could potentially endanger the client's well-being.
3. What action would be most appropriate for the nurse to minimize agitation in a disturbed client?
- A. Ensure minimal staff contact.
- B. Increase environmental sensory stimulation.
- C. Limit unnecessary interactions with the client.
- D. Discuss reasons for the client's suspicions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate action to minimize agitation in a disturbed client is to limit unnecessary interactions. This approach helps reduce stimulation, thus decreasing agitation. Constant staff contact can lead to increased stimulation and agitation. Increasing environmental sensory stimulation can overwhelm the client's senses and escalate agitation. Discussing suspicions may not be beneficial as not all disturbed clients are suspicious and the client may not be in a state to engage in such discussions effectively.
4. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of suicide?
- A. An 80-year-old man who lost his wife last year
- B. A 36-year-old woman whose former neighbor committed suicide
- C. A 40-year-old married businessman
- D. A 46-year-old former alcoholic who has been sober for 12 years
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is an 80-year-old man who lost his wife last year. Certain factors increase the risk of suicide, such as recent loss of a loved one, in this case, the man's wife. The elderly are a high-risk group due to factors like social isolation, physical health issues, and bereavement. While experiencing a loss can affect anyone, the combination of age, loss of a spouse, and the associated emotional impact elevates the risk significantly. The other choices are not at the highest risk of suicide. A former alcoholic who has been sober for 12 years has taken steps towards recovery, reducing the immediate risk. A 40-year-old married businessman and a 36-year-old woman whose former neighbor committed suicide do not have the same level of immediate risk as the elderly man who recently lost his wife.
5. The nurse selects the best site for insertion of an IV catheter in the client's right arm. Which documentation should the nurse use to identify the placement of the IV access?
- A. Left brachial vein
- B. Right cephalic vein
- C. Dorsal side of the right wrist
- D. Right upper extremity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is the right cephalic vein. The cephalic vein is a large and superficial vein commonly used for IV access. Documenting the specific anatomic name of the vein used for IV access, such as the cephalic vein, is essential for accurate medical records. Option A, the left brachial vein, is incorrect as the brachial vein is too deep to be accessed for IV infusion. Option C, the dorsal side of the right wrist, is not a recommended IV access site due to fragile veins and potential pain for the patient. Option D, right upper extremity, is too broad and lacks the specificity necessary for precise documentation of the IV access site.
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