Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following diseases would require the nurse to wear an N95 respirator as part of personal protective equipment?

• A. Human immunodeficiency virus
• B. Clostridium difficile enterocolitis
• C. Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus
• D. Measles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infections that require airborne precautions necessitate the use of an N95 respirator, a type of mask that filters particles that are 5 micrograms or smaller. Illnesses that require airborne precautions include Measles, Varicella, Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), and tuberculosis. Measles is a highly contagious airborne disease caused by a virus. It can spread through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Wearing an N95 respirator helps prevent the nurse from inhaling these infectious particles. Human immunodeficiency virus, Clostridium difficile enterocolitis, and Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus do not require the use of an N95 respirator as they are not transmitted through the air but have other modes of transmission.

2. What is the anatomic structure located in the middle of the heart that separates the right and left ventricles?

• A. Septum
• B. Sputum
• C. Separator
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the septum. The septum is a structure located in the middle of the heart that separates the right and left ventricles. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the separation between the two ventricles to ensure efficient blood flow. The other choices, 'Sputum' and 'Separator,' are incorrect as they do not refer to the anatomic structure in the heart that serves this specific function. 'Sputum' is a term used to describe phlegm or mucus, not an anatomical structure, and 'Separator' is a generic term that does not specifically identify the cardiac structure mentioned in the question.

3. During an examination, the nurse notices that a female patient has a round "moon"? face, central trunk obesity, and a cervical hump. Her skin is fragile with bruises. The nurse determines that the patient likely has which condition?

• A. Gigantism
• B. Acromegaly
• C. Cushing syndrome
• D. Marfan syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cushing syndrome is characterized by weight gain and edema with central trunk and cervical obesity (buffalo hump) and a round, plethoric face (moon face). Excessive catabolism in Cushing syndrome causes muscle wasting, weakness, thin arms and legs, reduced height, and thin, fragile skin with purple abdominal striae, bruising, and acne. Gigantism is characterized by increased height and weight and delayed sexual development, which are not present in the patient. Acromegaly results from excessive growth hormone secretion in adulthood, leading to bone overgrowth in specific areas like the face, head, hands, and feet. Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder characterized by a tall, thin stature and distinct features not seen in this patient. The combination of signs described in the question aligns with the clinical presentation of Cushing syndrome.

4. A patient's nursing diagnosis is Insomnia. The desired outcome is: 'Patient will sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly by October 31.' On November 1, a review of the sleep data shows the patient sleeps an average of 4 hours nightly and takes a 2-hour afternoon nap. Which evaluation should be documented?

• A. Consistently demonstrated
• B. Often demonstrated
• C. Sometimes demonstrated
• D. Never demonstrated

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Never demonstrated.' Despite the patient sleeping a total of 6 hours daily, it is not achieved in one uninterrupted session at night as per the desired outcome. The patient's habit of taking a 2-hour afternoon nap also affects the evaluation. Therefore, the outcome should be evaluated as 'Never demonstrated.' Choice A, 'Consistently demonstrated,' is incorrect because the desired outcome of sleeping for a minimum of 5 hours nightly in one session is not met. Choice B, 'Often demonstrated,' is incorrect as the patient's sleep pattern does not consistently align with the desired outcome. Choice C, 'Sometimes demonstrated,' is also incorrect as the patient's sleep pattern does not meet the specific criteria set in the desired outcome.

5. An adult's blood pressure reads 40/20. You place the patient in a Trendelenberg position before rechecking the blood pressure. What actions will you take to position the patient correctly?

• A. lower the head of the bed and raise the foot of the bed
• B. raise the head of the bed up to about 60 to 75 degrees
• C. raise the head of the bed up to about 75 to 90 degrees
• D. raise the siderails and place the bed in the high position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a Trendelenberg position, used for low blood pressure, the correct action is to lower the head of the bed and raise the foot of the bed. This positioning facilitates the return of blood to the heart and helps increase blood pressure. Option B, raising the head of the bed to 60 to 75 degrees, is incorrect as it is not the Trendelenberg position. Option C, raising the head of the bed to 75 to 90 degrees, is incorrect as it does not align with the Trendelenberg position. Option D, raising the siderails and placing the bed in the high position, is incorrect as it does not address the specific positioning required for the Trendelenberg position.

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