Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is employed at a district health department and must spend several hours each day sitting at a desk. Which principle of ergonomics will most likely help them to reduce the risk of injury or pain in this situation?

• A. Adjust the chair height to keep the legs bent at the hips at a 90-degree angle
• B. Maintain the position of the computer monitor just below eye level
• C. Stand up and take a walk or stretch every 4 hours
• D. Rest wrists on the edge of the desk while typing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When sitting for prolonged periods, it is important to adjust the height of the chair so that the legs are bent at the hips at a 90-degree angle. This position helps to reduce pressure on the back, legs, and feet, promoting better posture and reducing muscle fatigue. Standing up and moving around at least once every hour is crucial to support circulation and prevent stiffness. Maintaining the position of the computer monitor just below eye level helps reduce strain on the neck and eyes. Resting wrists on the edge of the desk while typing can lead to wrist strain and discomfort, so it is not an ergonomic recommendation for prolonged desk work.

2. During an office visit, the healthcare provider is assessing a patient's skin. What part of the hand and technique would be used to best assess the patient's skin temperature?

• A. Fingertips
• B. Dorsal surface of the hand
• C. Ulnar portion of the hand
• D. Palmar surface of the hand

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the dorsal surface of the hand. The dorsa (backs) of the hands and fingers are best for determining temperature because the skin is thinner on the dorsal surfaces than on the palms. Fingertips are best for fine, tactile discrimination and not for assessing skin temperature. The ulnar and palmar surfaces of the hands are not as effective for assessing skin temperature as the dorsal surface because they have thicker skin layers.

3. Why should a palpated pressure be performed before auscultating blood pressure?

• A. To more clearly hear the Korotkoff sounds.
• B. To detect the presence of an auscultatory gap.
• C. To avoid missing a falsely elevated blood pressure.
• D. To more readily identify phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a palpated pressure before auscultating blood pressure helps in detecting the presence of an auscultatory gap. An auscultatory gap is a period during blood pressure measurement when Korotkoff sounds temporarily disappear before reappearing. Inflation of the cuff 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point where a palpated pulse disappears helps in identifying this gap. This technique ensures accurate blood pressure measurement by preventing the underestimation of blood pressure values. The other options are incorrect because palpating the pressure is not primarily done to hear Korotkoff sounds more clearly, avoid missing falsely elevated blood pressure, or readily identify a specific phase of Korotkoff sounds.

4. A client's intake and output are being calculated by a nurse. During the last shift, the client consumed � cup of gelatin, a skinless chicken breast, 1 cup of green beans, and 300 cc of water. The client also urinated 250 cc and had 2 bowel movements. What is this client's intake and output for this shift?

• A. 420 cc intake, 250 cc output
• B. 300 cc intake, 250 cc output
• C. 550 cc intake, 550 cc output
• D. 300 cc intake, 550 cc output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 420 cc intake and 250 cc output for this shift. To calculate the intake, � cup of gelatin (approximately 120 cc) and 300 cc of water should be added together, resulting in 420 cc. Food intake like the chicken breast and green beans is not converted to cc's but may be documented for hospital protocol. Output includes urine (250 cc in this case) and other forms like vomit, diarrhea, or gastric suction. Bowel movements are not converted to cc's, but the nurse may need to document the number of stools passed. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the intake and output calculations based on the information provided.

5. Which of the following is an example of a positive effect of exercise on a client?

• A. Decreased basal metabolic rate
• B. Decreased venous return
• C. Decreased work of breathing
• D. Decreased gastric motility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased work of breathing.' Exercise has numerous positive effects on clients, such as increasing metabolic rate, improving gastric motility, and enhancing venous return. When a client exercises regularly, their work of breathing decreases, meaning that everyday activities require less exertion. This is beneficial as it indicates improved cardiovascular and respiratory efficiency. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a decreased basal metabolic rate, decreased venous return, and decreased gastric motility are not typically considered positive effects of exercise. Instead, an increased basal metabolic rate, improved venous return, and optimal gastric motility are desired outcomes associated with physical activity.

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