Nursing Elites

1. Which mental health disorder is most likely to be treated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?

• A. Clinical depression
• B. Substance abuse disorder
• C. Antisocial personality disorder
• D. Psychosis occurring in schizophrenia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is commonly used to treat severe cases of clinical depression in individuals who have not responded well to psychotropic medications or when immediate intervention is necessary due to the severity of the depression. ECT is not typically a first-line treatment for substance abuse disorders, antisocial personality disorder, or psychosis occurring in schizophrenia. Clients with clinical depression who meet specific criteria and have not benefited from other treatments may be considered for ECT to alleviate symptoms and improve overall functioning.

2. The nurse who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Review the chart for a signed consent for medication administration.
• B. Get the guardian's permission to give the medication.
• C. Do not give the medication and document the reason.
• D. Complete an incident report and notify the supervisor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is not to administer the medication and document the reason. Since the adolescent client is a minor, parental or guardian consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. Option A, reviewing the chart for a signed consent for medication administration, is not the appropriate action in this situation as the focus is on parental consent for the client. Option B is incorrect because obtaining the health care provider's permission does not replace the need for parental consent for a minor. Option D, completing an incident report and notifying the supervisor, is unnecessary as there is no adverse event to report; the key concern is the lack of parental consent for medication administration.

3. Which intervention should the nurse use for a client who hallucinates, yells, and curses throughout the day?

• A. Ignore the client's behavior if the client is not harming anyone.
• B. Isolate the client until the behavior decreases or stops.
• C. Explain how the behavior affects other people on the unit.
• D. Seek to understand what the behavior means to the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client experiences hallucinations, yells, and curses, it is essential to seek to understand the underlying meaning of their behavior. All behavior has significance, and understanding the client's perspective can guide appropriate interventions. Ignoring the behavior may exacerbate the situation and isolating the client could lead to increased anxiety and further acting out. Explaining the impact on others is not helpful in this scenario as the client is not intentionally hallucinating; yelling and cursing are responses to the hallucinations.

4. An older woman has lived alone since the death of her husband 10 years ago, and she has a long list of vague complaints. Which assessment is the priority for the home health nurse to perform?

• A. Assess for feelings of loneliness and isolation.
• B. Determine if the client has unresolved grief.
• C. Determine if there are safety issues.
• D. Ask about the availability of support systems.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority assessment for the home health nurse in this scenario is to determine if there are safety issues. The client is an older woman living alone with a long list of vague complaints, indicating several risk factors. Ensuring her safety should be the primary concern. While assessing for feelings of loneliness, isolation, or grief is important, ensuring the client's safety takes precedence due to her vulnerable situation. Although assessing the availability of support systems is essential in a home health assessment, safety issues must be addressed first given the client's profile.

5. For a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder, which reaction is most likely to occur when the performance of a ritual is interrupted?

• A. Anxiety
• B. Hostility
• C. Aggression
• D. Withdrawal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is interrupted while performing a ritual, the most likely reaction is anxiety. The compulsive ritual serves as a coping mechanism to control anxiety, so any disruption to this ritual can heighten the individual's anxiety levels. Hostility is typically part of the disorder itself and not a direct reaction to the interruption of the ritual. Aggression may occur only if anxiety escalates to a panic level, leading to overt anger expression. Withdrawal is not a common behavioral pattern associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder and is not a typical reaction to ritual interruption.

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