NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions
1. Which mental health disorder is most likely to be treated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?
- A. Clinical depression
- B. Substance abuse disorder
- C. Antisocial personality disorder
- D. Psychosis occurring in schizophrenia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is commonly used to treat severe cases of clinical depression in individuals who have not responded well to psychotropic medications or when immediate intervention is necessary due to the severity of the depression. ECT is not typically a first-line treatment for substance abuse disorders, antisocial personality disorder, or psychosis occurring in schizophrenia. Clients with clinical depression who meet specific criteria and have not benefited from other treatments may be considered for ECT to alleviate symptoms and improve overall functioning.
2. Which factor is most critical for a single mother of 2 children who recently lost her job and does not know what to do?
- A. Developmental history of children
- B. Available situational supports
- C. Underlying unconscious conflict
- D. Willingness to restructure lifestyle
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a crisis intervention, the priority is to identify available situational supports, such as family, friends, community resources, and social services, that can help the single mother and her children during this difficult time. Understanding the developmental history of the children may be important to assess their needs, but it is not the most critical factor in this immediate crisis. Exploring underlying unconscious conflicts is more suited for long-term therapy rather than crisis intervention. While the willingness to restructure lifestyle may eventually be necessary, the immediate focus should be on finding support systems to address the current crisis.
3. The nurse is performing an admission assessment for a non-English speaking patient who is from China. Which actions could the nurse take to enhance communication (select one that does not apply)?
- A. Use an electronic translation application.
- B. Use a telephone-based medical interpreter.
- C. Wait until an agency interpreter is available.
- D. Ask the patient's teenage daughter to interpret.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Electronic translation applications, telephone-based medical interpreters, and agency interpreters are all appropriate tools to enhance communication with non-English-speaking patients. However, asking the patient's teenage daughter to interpret is not recommended due to potential misinterpretation of crucial information during the admission assessment. While family members may be considered in the absence of a professional interpreter, there is a risk of misunderstanding or lack of sharing essential details. It is important to rely on trained interpreters to ensure accurate communication and avoid miscommunication or misinterpretation of critical information. Using gestures can be helpful, but over-exaggeration of gestures is unnecessary and may lead to confusion.
4. A client says, 'I hear a man speaking from the corner of the room. Do you hear him, too?' Which response is best?
- A. What is he saying to you? Does it make any sense?
- B. Yes, I hear him. What do you think he is saying?
- C. No one is in the corner of the room. Can't you see that?
- D. No, I don't hear him, but that must be upsetting for you.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best response is D: 'No, I don't hear him, but that must be upsetting for you.' This response acknowledges the client's experience without validating the hallucination. The nurse expresses empathy by acknowledging the client's feelings ('that must be upsetting for you'), showing understanding and support. Choice A focuses on the content of the hallucination, which may inadvertently reinforce the delusion. Choice B validates the hallucination by agreeing that the nurse also hears the man. Choice C denies the client's experience and can lead to further distress by invalidating their perception.
5. A hospitalized client has had difficulty falling asleep for two nights and is becoming irritable and restless. Which action by the nurse is best?
- A. Determine the client's usual bedtime routine and include these rituals in the plan of care as safety allows.
- B. Instruct the UAP not to wake the client under any circumstances during the night.
- C. Place a 'Do Not Disturb' sign on the door and change assessments from every 4 to every 8 hours.
- D. Encourage the client to avoid pain medication during the day, which might increase daytime napping.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: By determining the client's usual bedtime routine and incorporating these rituals into the care plan, the nurse can help the client fall asleep faster and improve the quality of care without compromising safety. This approach respects the client's individual needs and preferences. In contrast, options B, C, and D do not address the client's sleep issue effectively and may even compromise the client's safety or standard of care. Option B fails to address the underlying problem of the client's sleep disturbance, while option C reduces the frequency of assessments, which can impact the timely identification of changes in the client's condition. Option D focuses on pain medication and daytime napping, which are not directly related to the client's current sleep difficulties.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access