the nurse plans to administer diazepam 4 mg iv push to a client with severe anxiety how many milliliters should the nurse administer round to the nea
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NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions

1. The nurse plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: (Volume to administer = (Ordered Dose × Volume on hand) / Dose on hand). In this case, it would be (4 mg × 1 mL) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect because it miscalculates the dosage. Choice C (1.25 mL) and Choice D (2.0 mL) are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the ordered dose and available concentration. The correct answer, 0.8 mL, is derived from accurate dosage calculation and aligns with the formula for IV medication administration, ensuring the safe and effective delivery of the medication to the client.

2. What is the similarity between the stage-crisis theory proposed by Havighurst and the psychosocial development theory formulated by Erikson?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Both Havighurst's stage-crisis theory and Erikson's psychosocial development theory are grounded in the concept of developmental tasks. They both emphasize that successful completion of specific tasks at various life stages is crucial for healthy development. While Erikson's theory consists of eight stages of psychosocial development, Havighurst's theory comprises six stages. The idea that a child's growth is guided by individual gene activity is attributed to Gesell's theory, not Havighurst or Erikson. The emphasis on changes in a person's thoughts, emotions, and behaviors shaping beliefs about morality aligns with moral development theory, not specifically with Havighurst's or Erikson's theories.

3. What does the E in the acronym DELIRIUM represent in causes contributing to delirium?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The E in the acronym DELIRIUM stands for Electrolytes. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to delirium. The other letters in the acronym represent: D = Dementia; L = Lung, liver, heart, kidney, brain; I = Infection; R = Rx Drugs; I = Injury, Pain, Stress; U = Unfamiliar environment; M = Metabolic. It is crucial to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium is often reversible with treatment of underlying causes. Dementia should only be considered after ruling out delirium, as addressing the contributing factors may alleviate the delirium state.

4. An older client who had abdominal surgery 3 days earlier was given a barbiturate for sleep and is now requesting to go to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Barbiturates cause central nervous system (CNS) depression, increasing the risk of falls. Therefore, the nurse should assist the client to the bathroom to ensure safety. Using a bedpan is not necessary if the client can safely walk to the bathroom. Asking about bowel movements or voiding, as in option C, is irrelevant to the immediate safety concern of assisting the client to the bathroom. Assessing the client's bladder, as in option D, is unnecessary in this situation as there is no indication that the client cannot communicate his or her needs effectively. The priority here is to prevent falls and ensure the client's safety while assisting to the bathroom.

5. A client who is at 28 weeks' gestation and in active labor is crying. She says, 'I just know that this baby is going to die. What's the use of doing all this to save it?' Which explanation would interpret the client's statements?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's statement indicates anticipatory grief, where she is preparing for a potential loss. This grief is not necessarily about the literal death of the baby but about the loss of the anticipated healthy full-term baby. The client may not be ready to bond with the reality of a preterm baby. Providing gentle, positive support is essential to help her cope with her feelings, as firm support may come across as dismissive. Sedation is not appropriate as it could hinder the client's emotional processing. Allowing the client to express her emotions and work through anticipatory grieving is crucial. The use of the word 'it' reflects the client's emotional struggle and is not the primary issue at hand.

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The client is still unable to sleep despite following the progressive muscle relaxation technique routine taught by the nurse. Which action should the nurse take first?

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